All Free Veterinary Science MCQs with Answers

Every Veterinary Science question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

758 questions · page 32 of 38

  • A. Irreversible destruction of central receptors
  • B. Permanent binding to plasma proteins
  • C. Slow conversion into an inactive metabolite
  • D. Rapid redistribution from the brain to other tissues

Explanation: After intravenous administration, propofol rapidly leaves the brain and redistributes into muscle and fat, causing recovery from the…

Correct answer: Rapid redistribution from the brain to other tissues
  • A. Proton pump inhibitors
  • B. Muscarinic agonists
  • C. Loop diuretics
  • D. Cholinesterase inhibitors

Explanation: Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole block the gastric hydrogen-potassium ATPase, the final step in acid secretion.

Correct answer: Proton pump inhibitors
  • A. It is always absorbed completely by mouth
  • B. Toxic and effective concentrations are close together
  • C. It cannot cross biological membranes
  • D. Its elimination is independent of dose

Explanation: A narrow therapeutic index means that the toxic dose is close to the effective dose.

Correct answer: Toxic and effective concentrations are close together
  • A. Plasma protein binding
  • B. Gastrointestinal absorption
  • C. Hepatic biotransformation
  • D. Tissue redistribution

Explanation: Hepatic biotransformation chemically modifies many lipid-soluble drugs, usually making them easier to eliminate in urine or bile.

Correct answer: Hepatic biotransformation
  • A. It produces no response at any dose
  • B. It reduces the response of every unrelated receptor
  • C. It permanently blocks the receptor
  • D. It produces a submaximal response even at full receptor occupancy

Explanation: A partial agonist activates its receptor but has lower intrinsic efficacy than a full agonist, so its maximum response is limited.

Correct answer: It produces a submaximal response even at full receptor occupancy
  • A. Xylazine
  • B. Ketamine
  • C. Acepromazine
  • D. Diazepam

Explanation: Atipamezole is an alpha2 adrenergic antagonist that reverses sedation and other effects produced by xylazine and related alpha2 agonists.

Correct answer: Xylazine
  • A. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
  • B. N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor
  • C. GABA-A receptor
  • D. Mu opioid receptor

Explanation: Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic that mainly blocks N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors, reducing excitatory glutamate transmission.

Correct answer: N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor
  • A. Lincosamides
  • B. Macrolides
  • C. Tetracyclines
  • D. Sulfonamides

Explanation: Tetracyclines bind the 30S ribosomal subunit and prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA, thereby inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.

Correct answer: Tetracyclines
  • A. Cuticular collagen
  • B. Mitochondrial DNA
  • C. Neuronal sodium channels
  • D. Microtubules

Explanation: Benzimidazoles bind parasite beta-tubulin and disrupt microtubule formation, impairing nutrient uptake and cellular function.

Correct answer: Microtubules
  • A. Phase II
  • B. Phase I
  • C. Phase III
  • D. Phase zero

Explanation: Glucuronidation is a Phase II conjugation reaction that generally produces a more water-soluble metabolite.

Correct answer: Phase II
  • A. Enterohepatic recycling
  • B. First-pass effect
  • C. Zero-order elimination
  • D. Volume displacement

Explanation: The first-pass effect is presystemic metabolism in the gut wall and liver after oral absorption, which reduces the amount reaching…

Correct answer: First-pass effect
  • A. A constant mass is eliminated per hour
  • B. Elimination stops when concentration falls
  • C. A constant fraction is eliminated per unit time
  • D. Clearance increases without limit as dose rises

Explanation: In first-order kinetics, the amount eliminated per unit time depends on concentration, so a constant fraction is removed during each time…

Correct answer: A constant fraction is eliminated per unit time
  • A. Naloxone
  • B. Medetomidine
  • C. Pentobarbital
  • D. Acepromazine

Explanation: Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer used for sedation and preanaesthetic medication, although it does not provide reliable…

Correct answer: Acepromazine
  • A. 50S subunit
  • B. 40S subunit
  • C. 30S subunit
  • D. 60S subunit

Explanation: Chloramphenicol binds the 50S bacterial ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase activity.

Correct answer: 50S subunit
  • A. Highly soluble complexes
  • B. Poorly absorbed chelates
  • C. Rapidly hydrolysed esters
  • D. Strongly acidic metabolites

Explanation: Tetracyclines bind calcium and form poorly absorbed chelates in the gastrointestinal tract.

Correct answer: Poorly absorbed chelates
  • A. Muscarinic M2 receptor
  • B. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor
  • C. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
  • D. Nicotinic Nn receptor

Explanation: Acepromazine blocks alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, producing peripheral vasodilation and possible hypotension.

Correct answer: Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
  • A. GABA-A receptor
  • B. Histamine H1 receptor
  • C. Opioid mu receptor
  • D. Dopamine D2 receptor

Explanation: Metoclopramide mainly reduces vomiting through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

Correct answer: Dopamine D2 receptor
  • A. Anticoagulant rodenticide
  • B. Bromethalin rodenticide
  • C. Cholecalciferol rodenticide
  • D. Zinc phosphide rodenticide

Explanation: Vitamin K1 restores the production of functional clotting factors depleted by anticoagulant rodenticides.

Correct answer: Anticoagulant rodenticide
  • A. GABA chloride channels
  • B. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
  • C. Serotonin 5-HT1 receptors
  • D. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

Explanation: Levamisole stimulates nematode nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, producing sustained contraction followed by paralysis.

Correct answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
  • A. Cyclooxygenase
  • B. Monoamine oxidase
  • C. Phosphodiesterase
  • D. Acetylcholinesterase

Explanation: Aminophylline, a theophylline preparation, inhibits phosphodiesterase and increases intracellular cyclic AMP, promoting bronchial smooth…

Correct answer: Phosphodiesterase