All Free Veterinary Science MCQs with Answers

• A. Urine flow rate
• B. Renal clearance
• C. Elimination half-life alone
• D. Volume of distribution

Explanation: Loading dose is based mainly on the target concentration and volume of distribution, with adjustment for bioavailability when the route is…

• A. Gastrointestinal ulceration
• B. Severe hypoglycemia
• C. Permanent mydriasis
• D. Increased red-cell production

Explanation: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase reduces protective gastrointestinal prostaglandins and may cause ulceration or bleeding.

• A. Sheep
• B. Horse
• C. Goat
• D. Camel

Explanation: Horses are highly sensitive to ionophore toxicity, which can cause severe myocardial and skeletal muscle damage.

• A. Oral administration
• B. Intramuscular administration
• C. Intravenous administration
• D. Subcutaneous administration

Explanation: Intravenous administration places the entire dose directly into the bloodstream, giving 100% systemic bioavailability.

• A. Plasma water only
• B. Extracellular fluid only
• C. Renal filtrate
• D. Body tissues

Explanation: A large volume of distribution indicates that much of the drug leaves the plasma and enters tissues.

• A. Half-life
• B. Clearance
• C. Bioavailability
• D. Volume of distribution

Explanation: The elimination half-life is the time needed for the plasma drug concentration to fall by half.

• A. Acepromazine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Atipamezole

Explanation: Naloxone competitively blocks opioid receptors and can rapidly reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.

• A. Inhibition of bacterial cell membrane formation
• B. Direct stimulation of bacterial ribosomes
• C. Sequential blockade of folate synthesis
• D. Prevention of viral nucleic acid release

Explanation: Trimethoprim and sulfonamides inhibit successive steps in bacterial folate synthesis.

• A. It causes permanent renal calcification
• B. It blocks growth hormone secretion
• C. It produces irreversible auditory blindness
• D. It may damage developing articular cartilage

Explanation: Fluoroquinolones, including enrofloxacin, may damage developing articular cartilage in young animals.

• A. Paracetamol
• B. Meloxicam
• C. Carprofen
• D. Buprenorphine

Explanation: Cats have limited capacity to glucuronidate paracetamol, allowing toxic metabolites to accumulate.

• A. Halothane
• B. Isoflurane
• C. Diethyl ether
• D. Chloroform

Explanation: Isoflurane has relatively low blood-gas solubility, so changes in inspired concentration produce fairly rapid changes in anaesthetic…

• A. Proximal convoluted tubule
• B. Distal convoluted tubule
• C. Thick ascending loop of Henle
• D. Collecting duct

Explanation: Furosemide blocks the sodium-potassium-2 chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

• A. To prevent bacterial drug resistance in the patient
• B. To prevent all adverse effects during treatment
• C. To increase the drug concentration in edible tissues
• D. To allow drug residues in food products to fall below safe limits

Explanation: A withdrawal period allows residues in meat, milk, eggs, or honey to decline below legally permitted safety limits.

• A. It shifts the agonist dose-response curve to the right
• B. It shifts the agonist dose-response curve to the left
• C. It permanently increases the agonist maximum effect
• D. It produces the same effect as the agonist alone

Explanation: A competitive antagonist competes reversibly with an agonist at the same receptor site, so a higher agonist concentration is needed to…

• A. Inhibition of microsomal enzymes
• B. Induction of microsomal enzymes
• C. Permanent reduction of renal filtration
• D. Complete blockage of biliary secretion

Explanation: Phenobarbital induces hepatic microsomal enzymes, especially cytochrome P450 enzymes.

• A. Voltage-gated calcium channels
• B. Ligand-gated chloride channels
• C. Voltage-gated sodium channels
• D. ATP-sensitive potassium channels

Explanation: Local anaesthetics block voltage-gated sodium channels in neuronal membranes.

• A. Ranitidine
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Prazosin
• D. Lidocaine

Explanation: Lidocaine is an amide-type local anaesthetic that blocks sodium channels and produces reversible loss of sensation.

• A. Cestodes and trematodes
• B. Adult heartworms only
• C. Gastrointestinal nematodes only
• D. Ticks and mites only

Explanation: Praziquantel is highly effective against many tapeworms and flukes, which are cestodes and trematodes.

• A. Direct stimulation of bacterial growth
• B. Suppression of inflammatory mediator production
• C. Inhibition of renal sodium excretion only
• D. Activation of skeletal muscle contraction

Explanation: Glucocorticoids suppress inflammation by altering gene transcription and reducing the production of cytokines, prostaglandins and other…

• A. Atipamezole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Buprenorphine
• D. Flumazenil

Explanation: Buprenorphine is a partial mu opioid agonist that provides analgesia and generally causes less respiratory depression than full mu…