All Free Law and Constitution MCQs with Answers

• A. Judicial precedent
• B. Customary international law
• C. Treaty interpretation
• D. Diplomatic privilege

Explanation: Customary international law requires general and consistent state practice together with opinio juris, meaning a belief that the practice…

• A. Public international law governs relations involving international actors, while private international law addresses cross-border private disputes
• B. Public international law applies only during armed conflict, while private international law applies only during peace
• C. Public international law concerns contracts, while private international law concerns diplomatic relations
• D. Public international law is enforced only by national courts, while private international law is enforced only by the United Nations

Explanation: Public international law regulates relations among states, international organisations and other recognised actors.

• A. It automatically grants membership in the United Nations
• B. It confirms that the recognised state has diplomatic and legal relations with the recognising state
• C. It transfers sovereignty over disputed territory to the recognising state
• D. It removes the recognised state from the jurisdiction of international law

Explanation: Recognition allows the recognising state to treat the entity as a state for relevant diplomatic and legal purposes.

• A. 3 nautical miles
• B. 6 nautical miles
• C. 12 nautical miles
• D. 24 nautical miles

Explanation: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea recognises a territorial sea extending up to 12 nautical miles from the coastal…

• A. A diplomat may be arrested by the receiving state for any local offence
• B. A diplomat is generally protected from the receiving state's criminal jurisdiction
• C. A diplomat automatically becomes a citizen of the receiving state
• D. A diplomat may exercise judicial power over the receiving state's courts

Explanation: Under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, diplomatic agents generally enjoy immunity from the criminal jurisdiction of the…

• A. When a private person's conduct causes any international criticism
• B. When conduct is attributable to the state and constitutes a breach of an international obligation
• C. When a state loses a case before any domestic court
• D. When the conduct occurs outside the state's territory in every case

Explanation: State responsibility generally requires two elements: conduct attributable to the state and a breach of an international obligation…

• A. The use or threat of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of a state
• B. The peaceful settlement of disputes through negotiation
• C. The conclusion of treaties between sovereign states
• D. The participation of states in United Nations organs

Explanation: Article 2(4) establishes the general prohibition on the threat or use of force against a state's territorial integrity or political…

• A. Negotiation
• B. Mediation
• C. Arbitration
• D. Good offices

Explanation: Arbitration refers to the submission of a dispute to one or more arbitrators whose decision is normally binding under the parties'…

• A. The automatic consent of every United Nations member
• B. The consent of the states concerned, expressed through an accepted legal basis
• C. A request made by any private individual affected by the dispute
• D. The nationality of the judges hearing the case

Explanation: The International Court of Justice is based on the consent of states in contentious proceedings.

• A. Satisfaction
• B. Restitution
• C. Countermeasure
• D. Retorsion

Explanation: Restitution aims, where possible, to re-establish the situation that existed before the wrongful act occurred.

• A. A permanent population
• B. A defined territory
• C. A permanent member of the United Nations
• D. A government capable of external relations

Explanation: The traditional criteria are a permanent population, defined territory, government, and capacity to enter relations with other states.

• A. To create obligations accepted by its parties
• B. To bind every state in the world automatically
• C. To replace all customary international law
• D. To give courts unlimited jurisdiction

Explanation: A treaty creates legal rights and obligations for the states that consent to be bound, subject to its terms and applicable international…

• A. Diplomatic protection
• B. State immunity
• C. Universal jurisdiction
• D. Active nationality

Explanation: State immunity reflects the equality and sovereignty of states and generally limits one state's courts from hearing cases against another…

• A. Territorial jurisdiction
• B. Universal jurisdiction
• C. Nationality jurisdiction
• D. Protective jurisdiction

Explanation: Universal jurisdiction permits states to prosecute certain offences regarded as particularly serious under international law, including…

• A. Treaties must be performed in good faith
• B. Treaties must be approved by every state
• C. Treaties cannot ever be terminated
• D. Treaties apply only during armed conflict

Explanation: Pacta sunt servanda means that treaties in force are binding on their parties and must be performed in good faith.

• A. Consent by the affected state
• B. Economic competition between states
• C. A change in national government
• D. A disagreement over treaty meaning

Explanation: Valid consent by an affected state can preclude the wrongfulness of conduct within the limits of that consent.

• A. Personal immunity
• B. Territorial sovereignty
• C. Universal jurisdiction
• D. The nationality principle

Explanation: Diplomatic agents generally enjoy personal immunity from the criminal jurisdiction of the receiving state under diplomatic law.

• A. The General Assembly
• B. The Security Council
• C. The Economic and Social Council
• D. The International Court of Justice

Explanation: The United Nations Charter assigns primary responsibility for maintaining international peace and security to the Security Council.

• A. It may be set aside by any later treaty
• B. It permits no derogation by states
• C. It applies only to domestic criminal law
• D. It binds only states that expressly accept it

Explanation: A jus cogens norm is accepted and recognised by the international community as a norm from which no derogation is permitted.

• A. Arbitration
• B. Judicial settlement
• C. Mediation
• D. Countermeasure

Explanation: Mediation involves a third party assisting negotiations and may include proposed terms, but the parties retain control over acceptance.