Free Antimicrobial Drugs MCQs with Answers
50 Antimicrobial Drugs MCQs from Nursing Pharmacology, each with the correct answer and a written explanation of why it is correct. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
Antimicrobial pharmacology covers antibiotics, antitubercular, antifungal, antiviral and antiparasitic drugs, including their targets, clinical uses, resistance and major adverse effects. Questions distinguish bactericidal from bacteriostatic action, narrow from broad spectrum therapy, and antimicrobial treatment from supportive management of infection.
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50 questions · page 2 of 3
- A. Hyperuricaemia with gout-like pain
- B. Severe hypoglycaemia from insulin release
- C. Ototoxicity with vestibular damage
- D. Aplastic anaemia from marrow failure
Explanation: Pyrazinamide can increase uric acid and cause arthralgia or gout-like symptoms.
Correct answer: Hyperuricaemia with gout-like pain- A. Serum liver transaminase levels
- B. Serum calcium concentration
- C. Haemoglobin A1c level
- D. Peak expiratory flow rate
Explanation: Systemic ketoconazole can cause serious hepatotoxicity, so liver function requires monitoring.
Correct answer: Serum liver transaminase levels- A. Report possible Clostridioides difficile infection
- B. Give an antidiarrhoeal medicine immediately
- C. Advise the patient to increase dairy intake
- D. Tell the patient that this is an expected harmless effect
Explanation: Clindamycin is strongly associated with antibiotic-associated colitis caused by Clostridioides difficile.
Correct answer: Report possible Clostridioides difficile infection- A. Take it separately from aluminium antacids
- B. Take it with an iron tablet for better absorption
- C. Stop treatment when the fever disappears
- D. Use it together with milk at every dose
Explanation: Aluminium, magnesium, calcium and iron can reduce ciprofloxacin absorption by chelation, so doses should be separated.
Correct answer: Take it separately from aluminium antacids- A. Assess hydration and report possible nephrotoxicity
- B. Administer the next dose more rapidly
- C. Restrict oral fluids until urine output improves
- D. Give potassium without checking laboratory results
Explanation: Intravenous acyclovir can cause renal injury, especially if the patient is dehydrated, so reduced urine output requires prompt assessment…
Correct answer: Assess hydration and report possible nephrotoxicity- A. Albendazole
- B. Acyclovir
- C. Fluconazole
- D. Isoniazid
Explanation: Albendazole is an anthelmintic used for several intestinal nematode infections, including ascariasis.
Correct answer: Albendazole- A. Assess the patient and notify the prescriber
- B. Stop all future doses permanently
- C. Give the drug by rapid intravenous push
- D. Tell the patient that kidney failure is confirmed
Explanation: Infusion-related fever, chills and rigors are common with amphotericin B and require assessment and management according to the…
Correct answer: Assess the patient and notify the prescriber- A. I will take every dose at the prescribed time
- B. I can stop treatment when my viral load falls
- C. I will double the next dose after missing one
- D. I can share unused tablets with a family member
Explanation: Consistent antiretroviral adherence suppresses viral replication and reduces the risk of resistance.
Correct answer: I will take every dose at the prescribed time- A. Notify the prescriber and monitor for bleeding
- B. Give both medicines together without further assessment
- C. Stop warfarin permanently before the first dose
- D. Add aspirin to improve antifungal treatment
Explanation: Fluconazole can increase warfarin effect and raise the risk of bleeding, so the prescriber should be informed and coagulation monitoring…
Correct answer: Notify the prescriber and monitor for bleeding30. Which antimicrobial inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit?
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Gentamicin
- C. Doxycycline
- D. Amoxicillin
Explanation: Erythromycin is a macrolide that binds to the 50S subunit and blocks bacterial protein synthesis.
Correct answer: Erythromycin- A. They do not act against viruses and unnecessary use promotes resistance
- B. They are avoided because they always cause severe allergic reactions
- C. They are used only when a fever continues for more than three days
- D. They cannot be given until a chest X-ray confirms bacterial infection
Explanation: Antibiotics target bacterial structures or processes, so they do not treat viral colds.
Correct answer: They do not act against viruses and unnecessary use promotes resistance- A. To prevent the development of drug-resistant organisms
- B. To reduce the need for laboratory monitoring
- C. To ensure that treatment causes no adverse effects
- D. To replace the need for adherence to the regimen
Explanation: Combination therapy attacks tuberculosis organisms through different mechanisms and reduces selection of resistant organisms.
Correct answer: To prevent the development of drug-resistant organisms- A. Apply it from the neck down and wash it off as directed
- B. Apply it only to visible lesions and remove it after 30 minutes
- C. Apply it to the scalp only and leave it on for 24 hours
- D. Apply it every morning until the itching completely disappears
Explanation: Permethrin is usually applied to the whole skin surface from the neck downward, including skin folds, and is washed off after the…
Correct answer: Apply it from the neck down and wash it off as directed- A. Oseltamivir
- B. Acyclovir
- C. Ribavirin
- D. Zidovudine
Explanation: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor used for susceptible influenza A and B infections, with greatest benefit when started early.
Correct answer: Oseltamivir- A. Take the medicine with a fatty meal
- B. Take the medicine with an antacid
- C. Take the medicine only on an empty stomach
- D. Take the medicine with a large dose of calcium
Explanation: Griseofulvin absorption is improved when it is taken with a fatty meal.
Correct answer: Take the medicine with a fatty meal- A. Establish intravenous access and begin prescribed isotonic fluids
- B. Offer oral fluids and reassess the blood pressure in one hour
- C. Apply a warm blanket and document the skin temperature
- D. Delay all treatment until the culture report identifies the organism
Explanation: The patient shows circulatory compromise, so restoring circulation with intravenous access and prescribed isotonic fluid is the priority.
Correct answer: Establish intravenous access and begin prescribed isotonic fluids- A. Report the findings promptly for blood count evaluation
- B. Reassure the patient that these effects are expected
- C. Give the next dose with food to reduce the symptoms
- D. Encourage strenuous activity to improve circulation
Explanation: Chloramphenicol can cause serious bone marrow suppression, including aplastic anaemia, so pallor and infection-like symptoms require…
Correct answer: Report the findings promptly for blood count evaluation38. Which laboratory test is especially important for a patient receiving zidovudine for HIV infection?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Serum amylase level
- C. Urine ketone level
- D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Explanation: Zidovudine may cause bone marrow suppression, including anaemia and neutropenia, so the complete blood count should be monitored.
Correct answer: Complete blood count- A. The mite spreads through prolonged close skin contact
- B. The infection spreads mainly through contaminated drinking water
- C. The illness is caused by bacteria carried in respiratory droplets
- D. The medicine works only if every contact has a skin lesion
Explanation: Scabies is caused by a mite that commonly spreads through prolonged close skin-to-skin contact, so household contacts may need evaluation…
Correct answer: The mite spreads through prolonged close skin contact- A. Clavulanic acid
- B. Pyridoxine
- C. Folic acid
- D. Naloxone
Explanation: Clavulanic acid binds beta-lactamase enzymes and protects amoxicillin from destruction.
Correct answer: Clavulanic acid