All Free Pharmacology MCQs with Answers

• A. Dopamine
• B. dobutamine
• C. Digoxin
• D. Doxepin

Explanation: Dopamine, dobutamine and digoxin increase myocardial contractility through beta1 stimulation or enhanced intracellular calcium.

• A. May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients
• B. Contraindicated in pregnancy
• C. Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy
• D. NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Explanation: ACE inhibitors are useful in diabetic nephropathy because they reduce intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria.

• A. Sodium nitrate
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Nitroglycerina
• D. Isosorbide dinitrateGet Study Guides

Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin is commonly used to terminate an acute angina attack because it rapidly releases nitric oxide, dilates veins and…

• A. Saralosin
• B. Diltiazem
• C. Coptopril
• D. Spirino lactone

Explanation: “Coptopril” is a misspelling of captopril, an ACE inhibitor that lowers angiotensin II and aldosterone formation.

• A. Propranolol
• B. Hydralazine
• C. A thiazide diuretic
• D. Gauanethidine

Explanation: Guanethidine depletes noradrenaline from sympathetic nerve terminals and alters neuronal uptake, making responses to injected…

• A. Ephedrine
• B. Reserpine
• C. Methyldopa
• D. Thiazole diuretics

Explanation: Ephedrine increases sympathetic activity and can raise blood pressure, so it is not an antihypertensive drug.

• A. Less tolerance develops
• B. Sublingual absorption is better
• C. Longer duration of action
• D. Direct coronary vasodilatory action is more

Explanation: Isosorbide 5-mononitrate has a longer duration of action and more reliable oral bioavailability than isosorbide dinitrate because it…

• A. Alpha methyl DOPA
• B. Prazosin
• C. Clonidine
• D. Propranolol

Explanation: Prazosin selectively blocks post-synaptic alpha-1 receptors, relaxing arterioles and veins to lower blood pressure.

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Alpha methyl dopa
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Pentoxifyline

Explanation: Pentoxifylline improves red-cell flexibility and peripheral blood flow in vascular disease but is not a standard antihypertensive drug.

• A. Hypertension
• B. Angina pectoris
• C. Atrial fibrillation
• D. Congestive heart failure

Explanation: Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic historically used for atrial fibrillation and other supraventricular arrhythmias.

• A. Increases cAMP
• B. Direct Vasodilator
• C. Calcium channel blocker
• D. Block the sympathetic flow at hypothalamus

Explanation: Sodium nitroprusside releases nitric oxide, which increases vascular cGMP and directly relaxes vascular smooth muscle in both arteries and…

• A. It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure
• B. Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability
• C. Mainly depression of A-V conduction
• D. Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium

Explanation: Nifedipine blocks L-type calcium channels predominantly in vascular smooth muscle, causing arteriolar dilation and a fall in systemic…

• A. Regulates vasomotor tone
• B. Acts via cAMP
• C. Present in cigarette smoke
• D. It is important in penile erection

Explanation: Nitric oxide activates soluble guanylyl cyclase, increasing cGMP, not cAMP.

• A. Anti hypertensive
• B. Antidiabetic
• C. Antipalatelet
• D. Anticoagulant

Explanation: Clopidogrel irreversibly blocks platelet P2Y12 ADP receptors, reducing platelet aggregation.

• A. Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes
• B. Worsening of preexisting asthma
• C. Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation
• D. Precipitate migrainic effect

Explanation: Abrupt beta-blocker withdrawal can precipitate angina or myocardial ischaemia, and beta-blockers can worsen asthma and mask hypoglycaemia.

• A. Dicumarol
• B. Idphenadione
• C. Heparin
• D. Phenindone

Explanation: Heparin enhances the activity of plasma antithrombin III, which then inactivates thrombin and factor Xa.

• A. Transient hypercoagulability is seen
• B. Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus
• C. In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form
• D. The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

Explanation: Warfarin's S-enantiomer is more potent than its R-enantiomer, generally by about three- to fivefold, so the claim that R is four times…

• A. Phenylbutazone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Rifampicin
• D. B & C

Explanation: Phenylbutazone can potentiate warfarin, whereas vitamin K reverses its action and rifampicin induces hepatic metabolism, reducing its…

• A. Anti-inflaqmmatory drug
• B. Antibiotic
• C. Anti-arthritic drug
• D. Antiplatelet drug

Explanation: Triflusal inhibits platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet drug used to reduce thrombotic events.

• A. Vaso dilator
• B. Vaso constrictor
• C. Neuroleptic
• D. Anti coagulant

Explanation: Felypressin is a vasopressin analogue that causes vasoconstriction and is used with some local anaesthetics to prolong their action.