All Free Nursing Pharmacology MCQs with Answers

• A. They do not act against viruses and unnecessary use promotes resistance
• B. They are avoided because they always cause severe allergic reactions
• C. They are used only when a fever continues for more than three days
• D. They cannot be given until a chest X-ray confirms bacterial infection

Explanation: Antibiotics target bacterial structures or processes, so they do not treat viral colds.

• A. To prevent the development of drug-resistant organisms
• B. To reduce the need for laboratory monitoring
• C. To ensure that treatment causes no adverse effects
• D. To replace the need for adherence to the regimen

Explanation: Combination therapy attacks tuberculosis organisms through different mechanisms and reduces selection of resistant organisms.

• A. Apply it from the neck down and wash it off as directed
• B. Apply it only to visible lesions and remove it after 30 minutes
• C. Apply it to the scalp only and leave it on for 24 hours
• D. Apply it every morning until the itching completely disappears

Explanation: Permethrin is usually applied to the whole skin surface from the neck downward, including skin folds, and is washed off after the…

• A. Oseltamivir
• B. Acyclovir
• C. Ribavirin
• D. Zidovudine

Explanation: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor used for susceptible influenza A and B infections, with greatest benefit when started early.

• A. Take the medicine with a fatty meal
• B. Take the medicine with an antacid
• C. Take the medicine only on an empty stomach
• D. Take the medicine with a large dose of calcium

Explanation: Griseofulvin absorption is improved when it is taken with a fatty meal.

• A. Establish intravenous access and begin prescribed isotonic fluids
• B. Offer oral fluids and reassess the blood pressure in one hour
• C. Apply a warm blanket and document the skin temperature
• D. Delay all treatment until the culture report identifies the organism

Explanation: The patient shows circulatory compromise, so restoring circulation with intravenous access and prescribed isotonic fluid is the priority.

• A. Report the findings promptly for blood count evaluation
• B. Reassure the patient that these effects are expected
• C. Give the next dose with food to reduce the symptoms
• D. Encourage strenuous activity to improve circulation

Explanation: Chloramphenicol can cause serious bone marrow suppression, including aplastic anaemia, so pallor and infection-like symptoms require…

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Serum amylase level
• C. Urine ketone level
• D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone level

Explanation: Zidovudine may cause bone marrow suppression, including anaemia and neutropenia, so the complete blood count should be monitored.

• A. The mite spreads through prolonged close skin contact
• B. The infection spreads mainly through contaminated drinking water
• C. The illness is caused by bacteria carried in respiratory droplets
• D. The medicine works only if every contact has a skin lesion

Explanation: Scabies is caused by a mite that commonly spreads through prolonged close skin-to-skin contact, so household contacts may need evaluation…

• A. Clavulanic acid
• B. Pyridoxine
• C. Folic acid
• D. Naloxone

Explanation: Clavulanic acid binds beta-lactamase enzymes and protects amoxicillin from destruction.

• A. They bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit
• B. They block bacterial cell wall cross-linking
• C. They inhibit fungal ergosterol synthesis
• D. They prevent viral nucleic acid release

Explanation: Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and cause faulty bacterial protein synthesis.

• A. Stop the medicine and seek urgent medical review
• B. Give the next dose with extra water
• C. Apply a moisturiser and continue treatment
• D. Reassure the patient that this is an expected effect

Explanation: Blistering skin and mucosal sores may indicate Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a serious drug reaction.

• A. Use an additional non-hormonal contraceptive method
• B. Take both medicines at the same time each morning
• C. Double the contraceptive dose during tuberculosis therapy
• D. Stop rifampicin whenever menstrual bleeding occurs

Explanation: Rifampicin increases hepatic metabolism of hormonal contraceptives and can reduce their effectiveness.

• A. Take each dose with food containing some fat
• B. Take each dose only on an empty stomach
• C. Avoid all fluids for two hours after each dose
• D. Take the tablets together with an antacid

Explanation: Lumefantrine is absorbed better when artemether-lumefantrine is taken with food containing fat, such as milk or a meal.

• A. Vancomycin
• B. Gentamicin
• C. Benzylpenicillin
• D. Acyclovir

Explanation: Oral vancomycin acts within the intestinal tract and is commonly used for C. difficile infection.

• A. Clean and dry the area before applying a thin layer
• B. Cover the area tightly with an airtight dressing
• C. Stop the cream as soon as itching decreases
• D. Apply the cream only to visibly broken skin

Explanation: The affected skin should be cleaned and dried before a thin layer is applied, and treatment should continue for the prescribed duration.

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Acute iron poisoning
• C. Hypoglycaemic shock
• D. Red man syndrome

Explanation: Linezolid can increase serotonergic activity when combined with some antidepressants, causing serotonin syndrome.

• A. Praziquantel
• B. Oseltamivir
• C. Fluconazole
• D. Isoniazid

Explanation: Praziquantel is an antiparasitic drug commonly used against schistosome infections.

• A. Intravenous artesunate
• B. Oral albendazole
• C. Topical permethrin
• D. Oral nystatin

Explanation: Severe falciparum malaria requires prompt parenteral antimalarial treatment, with intravenous artesunate commonly recommended.

• A. Fluoroquinolones
• B. Macrolides
• C. Aminoglycosides
• D. Sulfonamides

Explanation: Fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, preventing bacterial DNA replication.