All Free Nursing Pharmacology MCQs with Answers
Every Nursing Pharmacology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
450 questions · page 6 of 23
101. Which action best describes how an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor lowers blood pressure?
- A. It reduces formation of angiotensin II and aldosterone
- B. It blocks calcium entry into cardiac muscle cells
- C. It increases sodium loss through the renal tubules
- D. It directly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
Explanation: ACE inhibitors reduce angiotensin II formation, causing vasodilation and reduced aldosterone secretion.
Correct answer: It reduces formation of angiotensin II and aldosterone- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Serum calcium level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Blood glucose level
Explanation: Furosemide increases urinary potassium loss, so hypokalaemia can cause weakness and dysrhythmias.
Correct answer: Serum potassium level- A. Withhold nitroglycerin and notify the prescriber
- B. Give nitroglycerin and reassess after five minutes
- C. Give sildenafil again to improve coronary blood flow
- D. Place the patient flat and administer a diuretic
Explanation: Nitroglycerin combined with sildenafil can cause severe, potentially dangerous hypotension.
Correct answer: Withhold nitroglycerin and notify the prescriber- A. Nausea with yellow-green visual changes
- B. Increased appetite with flushed skin
- C. Dry cough with ankle swelling
- D. Increased urine output with thirst
Explanation: Gastrointestinal symptoms, visual disturbances and dysrhythmias are characteristic signs of digoxin toxicity.
Correct answer: Nausea with yellow-green visual changes- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Acetylcysteine
- D. Naloxone
Explanation: Protamine sulfate binds and neutralises unfractionated heparin. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, acetylcysteine treats paracetamol toxicity…
Correct answer: Protamine sulfate- A. Improved air movement with less wheezing
- B. Reduced airway inflammation over several weeks
- C. Thinner blood with less clot formation
- D. Lower blood pressure with slower heart rate
Explanation: Salbutamol is a short-acting beta2 agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and rapidly improves airflow.
Correct answer: Improved air movement with less wheezing- A. Rinse the mouth and spit out the water
- B. Take the medicine only during severe attacks
- C. Stop the medicine when breathing improves
- D. Drink less water for the next two hours
Explanation: Rinsing and spitting reduces oral candidiasis and throat irritation caused by inhaled corticosteroids.
Correct answer: Rinse the mouth and spit out the water- A. Withhold the drug and assess respiratory status
- B. Give the next dose with a glass of milk
- C. Ask the patient to walk to improve circulation
- D. Administer a cough suppressant before assessment
Explanation: Nonselective beta blockers such as propranolol can cause bronchoconstriction, making breathing the priority assessment.
Correct answer: Withhold the drug and assess respiratory status- A. Report the symptoms promptly to the prescriber
- B. Reassure the patient that this is always harmless
- C. Give an extra dose to prevent fast atrial rhythm
- D. Encourage strenuous exercise to improve lung function
Explanation: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis and fibrosis, which may present with dry cough and dyspnoea.
Correct answer: Report the symptoms promptly to the prescriber- A. Avoid suppressing the cough unless prescribed after assessment
- B. Use a suppressant freely to stop all airway secretions
- C. Take two different cough suppressants together
- D. Restrict fluids to reduce sputum production
Explanation: A productive cough can help clear secretions, so suppressing it may retain mucus and worsen airway obstruction.
Correct answer: Avoid suppressing the cough unless prescribed after assessment- A. Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle and lower vascular resistance
- B. Increased sodium retention and expanded circulating volume
- C. Reduced clotting factor production and slower thrombus formation
- D. Increased bronchial smooth muscle contraction and airway narrowing
Explanation: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that mainly relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle, reducing systemic vascular resistance and blood…
Correct answer: Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle and lower vascular resistance- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Serum amylase level
- C. Platelet count
- D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Explanation: Hydrochlorothiazide can increase urinary potassium loss, so hypokalaemia may cause cramps, weakness and dysrhythmias.
Correct answer: Serum potassium level113. Which statement best describes the action of metoprolol in a patient with hypertension and angina?
- A. It lowers heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand
- B. It increases heart rate and coronary oxygen demand
- C. It dissolves clots within the coronary arteries
- D. It directly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
Explanation: Metoprolol is a beta1 selective blocker that lowers heart rate, contractility and blood pressure, thereby reducing myocardial oxygen…
Correct answer: It lowers heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand- A. International normalized ratio
- B. Serum sodium concentration
- C. Peak expiratory flow rate
- D. White blood cell count
Explanation: The international normalized ratio, or INR, evaluates the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and helps identify excessive anticoagulation.
Correct answer: International normalized ratio- A. Apical pulse of 52 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 138 over 84 millimetres of mercury
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
- D. Mild flushing after the previous dose
Explanation: Verapamil slows atrioventricular conduction and can produce significant bradycardia, so an apical pulse of 52 beats per minute requires…
Correct answer: Apical pulse of 52 beats per minute- A. Reduced bronchial smooth muscle constriction
- B. Immediate suppression of the cough reflex
- C. Increased mucus production in the bronchi
- D. Rapid dissolution of pulmonary blood clots
Explanation: Ipratropium is an inhaled anticholinergic bronchodilator that reduces vagal bronchoconstriction and helps open the airways.
Correct answer: Reduced bronchial smooth muscle constriction- A. Stop the infusion and notify the prescriber
- B. Give the next dose with additional food
- C. Encourage strenuous exercise to reduce anxiety
- D. Place the patient flat and continue the infusion
Explanation: Restlessness, vomiting and dysrhythmia suggest theophylline toxicity, which can become life threatening.
Correct answer: Stop the infusion and notify the prescriber- A. I will not stop this medicine suddenly without advice
- B. I can stop it once my breathing improves
- C. I should double the dose after every missed tablet
- D. I should take it only when an acute attack begins
Explanation: Prolonged corticosteroid therapy suppresses adrenal function, so prednisone may need gradual tapering under medical supervision.
Correct answer: I will not stop this medicine suddenly without advice- A. Arrange urgent assessment for possible intracranial bleeding
- B. Offer oral fluids and observe for thirty minutes
- C. Administer the next anticoagulant dose as scheduled
- D. Apply a warm compress to the scalp and reassess later
Explanation: A head injury in a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy may cause concealed intracranial bleeding even without early symptoms.
Correct answer: Arrange urgent assessment for possible intracranial bleeding- A. These effects can occur from beta2 agonist stimulation
- B. These effects prove that the airway is completely blocked
- C. These effects show that the medicine has caused pneumonia
- D. These effects mean the patient should take extra doses
Explanation: Salbutamol can cause tremor and tachycardia, especially when repeated doses are taken, because beta agonist stimulation affects skeletal…
Correct answer: These effects can occur from beta2 agonist stimulation