All Free Midwifery and Obstetric Nursing MCQs with Answers

• A. Persistent vomiting with weight loss and ketonuria
• B. Mild nausea relieved by eating small meals
• C. Occasional vomiting without dehydration or weight loss
• D. Nausea occurring only after taking prenatal vitamins

Explanation: Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe vomiting with dehydration, weight loss, electrolyte disturbance and ketonuria.

• A. Ectopic pregnancy
• B. Threatened miscarriage
• C. Placenta previa
• D. Gestational trophoblastic disease

Explanation: Unilateral pain with vaginal bleeding and shoulder-tip pain is highly concerning for ectopic pregnancy, especially in early pregnancy.

• A. Threatened miscarriage
• B. Inevitable miscarriage
• C. Incomplete miscarriage
• D. Missed miscarriage

Explanation: Threatened miscarriage presents with bleeding during early pregnancy, usually with mild cramps and a closed cervical os.

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Placental abruption
• C. Uterine rupture
• D. Preterm labour

Explanation: Placenta previa classically causes painless, bright-red bleeding in the second half of pregnancy with a soft, non-tender uterus.

• A. New visual disturbance with severe headache
• B. Mild ankle swelling after prolonged standing
• C. Blood pressure slightly above the booking value
• D. Occasional heartburn after a large meal

Explanation: Severe headache and visual disturbance may indicate severe pre-eclampsia and increased risk of seizures, stroke and fetal compromise.

• A. A woman who previously delivered a macrosomic infant
• B. A woman with a history of uncomplicated appendicitis
• C. A woman whose mother had seasonal influenza
• D. A woman who had mild nausea in early pregnancy

Explanation: Previous delivery of a macrosomic infant suggests previous abnormal glucose regulation and increases the risk of gestational diabetes.

• A. Iron-deficiency anaemia
• B. Aplastic anaemia
• C. Sickle cell anaemia
• D. Acute haemolytic anaemia

Explanation: Iron-deficiency anaemia is typically microcytic and hypochromic, meaning the red cells are small and pale.

• A. To reduce the risk of pyelonephritis and preterm birth
• B. To prevent gestational diabetes and excessive weight gain
• C. To increase fetal movement and improve appetite
• D. To prevent all sexually transmitted infections during pregnancy

Explanation: Untreated asymptomatic bacteriuria can progress to pyelonephritis and is associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes, including preterm…

• A. Ultrasound with fetal biometry and Doppler studies
• B. Routine urine dipstick for glucose alone
• C. Maternal chest radiograph without abdominal shielding
• D. A vaginal examination as the first assessment

Explanation: Ultrasound measures fetal growth and amniotic fluid, while Doppler studies assess placental and fetal blood flow.

• A. Uteroplacental insufficiency causing fetal hypoxia
• B. Maternal iron deficiency causing fetal jaundice
• C. Excess maternal insulin causing fetal dehydration
• D. Cervical infection causing immediate fetal maturity

Explanation: Pre-eclampsia can reduce placental perfusion, causing uteroplacental insufficiency, fetal growth restriction and hypoxia.

• A. Ketonuria in a urine sample
• B. Glycosuria in a urine sample
• C. Proteinuria in a urine sample
• D. Haematuria in a urine sample

Explanation: Ketonuria develops when prolonged vomiting causes the body to use fat for energy instead of glucose.

• A. Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
• B. Previous uncomplicated vaginal birth
• C. Controlled gestational diabetes
• D. Iron deficiency during pregnancy

Explanation: Pelvic inflammatory disease can damage the fallopian tubes and interfere with normal movement of the fertilised ovum.

• A. Threatened miscarriage
• B. Inevitable miscarriage
• C. Missed miscarriage
• D. Complete miscarriage

Explanation: An open cervical os with bleeding and cramping indicates that miscarriage cannot be prevented, which is an inevitable miscarriage.

• A. Placental abruption
• B. Placenta previa
• C. Cervical ectropion
• D. Vasa previa

Explanation: Placental abruption commonly causes painful bleeding with uterine tenderness, increased tone or rigidity.

• A. Chronic hypertension
• B. Gestational hypertension
• C. Pre-eclampsia
• D. Chronic renal hypertension

Explanation: Gestational hypertension is new hypertension after 20 weeks without proteinuria or other features of pre-eclampsia.

• A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• B. Chronic iron deficiency
• C. Rheumatic heart disease
• D. Primary hypothyroidism

Explanation: Gestational diabetes identifies an increased future risk of type 2 diabetes, so postpartum glucose assessment and long-term lifestyle…

• A. I will take the tablet with tea to improve absorption.
• B. I will take the tablet with orange juice if tolerated.
• C. I will stop the tablet when my tiredness improves.
• D. I will take the tablet with an antacid after meals.

Explanation: Vitamin C improves iron absorption, so orange juice may be taken with the tablet if tolerated.

• A. Cataracts and sensorineural deafness
• B. Large-for-gestational-age growth
• C. Neonatal bowel obstruction
• D. Congenital hip dislocation

Explanation: Congenital rubella syndrome can cause cataracts, sensorineural deafness and congenital heart disease.

• A. Regular cigarette smoking
• B. Adequate maternal weight gain
• C. Previous uncomplicated pregnancy
• D. Daily intake of prenatal vitamins

Explanation: Cigarette smoking reduces placental blood flow and oxygen delivery, increasing the risk of fetal growth restriction.

• A. Fetal macrosomia with neonatal hypoglycaemia
• B. Severe fetal microcephaly with hypercalcaemia
• C. Congenital limb absence with hyperthermia
• D. Neonatal deafness with persistent bradycardia

Explanation: Maternal hyperglycaemia stimulates fetal insulin production, which promotes excessive fetal growth and can lead to neonatal hypoglycaemia…