All Free Midwifery and Obstetric Nursing MCQs with Answers

Every Midwifery and Obstetric Nursing question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

450 questions · page 7 of 23

  • A. Hyperkalaemia from increased intake
  • B. Hypokalaemia from repeated vomiting
  • C. Hypercalcaemia from dehydration
  • D. Hyponatraemia from iron therapy

Explanation: Repeated vomiting causes loss of gastric fluid and potassium, making hypokalaemia likely.

Correct answer: Hypokalaemia from repeated vomiting
Moderate
  • A. Hydatidiform mole
  • B. Threatened miscarriage
  • C. Cervical ectropion
  • D. Normal multiple pregnancy

Explanation: A hydatidiform mole may cause excessive uterine size, severe vomiting and vaginal bleeding because of very high human chorionic…

Correct answer: Hydatidiform mole
  • A. Placental abruption
  • B. Vasa previa
  • C. Uterine rupture
  • D. Cervical infection

Explanation: Vasa previa occurs when fetal vessels lie near the cervical opening and may tear when the membranes rupture, causing fetal blood loss and…

Correct answer: Vasa previa
  • A. Vitamin C deficiency
  • B. Folic acid deficiency
  • C. Vitamin K deficiency
  • D. Calcium deficiency

Explanation: Folic acid deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia with large red blood cells during pregnancy.

Correct answer: Folic acid deficiency
  • A. Gestational hypertension
  • B. Eclampsia
  • C. Chronic hypertension
  • D. Vasovagal syncope

Explanation: Eclampsia is the occurrence of seizures associated with pre-eclampsia when another cause is not found.

Correct answer: Eclampsia
Easy
  • A. Acute pyelonephritis
  • B. Bacterial vaginosis
  • C. Mild cystitis
  • D. Vulvovaginal candidiasis

Explanation: Fever, chills and costovertebral angle tenderness suggest infection has spread from the bladder to the kidneys, causing acute…

Correct answer: Acute pyelonephritis
Fairly easy
  • A. It commonly causes fetal macrosomia
  • B. It increases the risk of preterm birth
  • C. It prevents normal cervical effacement
  • D. It usually causes fetal postmaturity

Explanation: Maternal pyelonephritis is associated with systemic illness and an increased risk of preterm labour and birth.

Correct answer: It increases the risk of preterm birth
  • A. Fetal hydrops with generalised oedema
  • B. Maternal ankle oedema after standing
  • C. Increased maternal appetite
  • D. Fetal breech presentation

Explanation: Rh alloimmunisation can cause fetal haemolytic anaemia, leading to hydrops fetalis with widespread oedema and fluid accumulation.

Correct answer: Fetal hydrops with generalised oedema
Easy
  • A. Congenital infection and fetal loss
  • B. Isolated fetal macrosomia
  • C. Congenital limb shortening only
  • D. Maternal gestational diabetes

Explanation: Untreated maternal syphilis can cross the placenta and cause congenital infection, stillbirth, miscarriage or serious neonatal disease.

Correct answer: Congenital infection and fetal loss
  • A. Encourage vigorous walking to improve circulation
  • B. Assess airway, breathing and circulation promptly
  • C. Offer a high-fibre snack and review later
  • D. Place her flat and leave her to rest alone

Explanation: Breathlessness at rest and palpitations may indicate inadequate oxygen delivery and require immediate assessment of airway, breathing and…

Correct answer: Assess airway, breathing and circulation promptly
Fairly easy
  • A. Perform a digital vaginal examination
  • B. Encourage walking to assess the bleeding
  • C. Apply fundal pressure to assess tenderness
  • D. Avoid vaginal examination and notify the obstetric team

Explanation: Digital vaginal examination can disrupt a placenta lying over or near the cervical os and cause severe haemorrhage.

Correct answer: Avoid vaginal examination and notify the obstetric team
Moderate
  • A. Complete hydatidiform mole
  • B. Incomplete miscarriage
  • C. Cervical ectopic pregnancy
  • D. Degenerating uterine fibroid

Explanation: A complete hydatidiform mole produces abnormal trophoblastic tissue that appears as multiple cystic spaces and usually has no viable…

Correct answer: Complete hydatidiform mole
  • A. Oligohydramnios
  • B. Polyhydramnios
  • C. Fetal growth restriction
  • D. Premature cervical dilatation

Explanation: Polyhydramnios is excessive amniotic fluid and commonly causes rapid fundal growth, abdominal distension and maternal breathlessness.

Correct answer: Polyhydramnios
Fairly easy
  • A. Umbilical cord compression
  • B. Excessive fetal movement
  • C. Fetal macrosomia
  • D. Maternal hyperglycaemia

Explanation: With too little amniotic fluid, the cord can become compressed between the fetus and uterus, causing variable fetal heart rate…

Correct answer: Umbilical cord compression
Fairly easy
  • A. Parvovirus B19 infection
  • B. Candidal vulvovaginitis
  • C. Uncomplicated bacterial vaginosis
  • D. Maternal hepatitis A infection

Explanation: Parvovirus B19 can suppress fetal red blood cell production, causing severe fetal anaemia and hydrops fetalis.

Correct answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
  • A. Congenital sensorineural hearing loss
  • B. Neonatal shoulder dystocia
  • C. Congenital absence of the placenta
  • D. Persistent maternal hypertension

Explanation: Congenital cytomegalovirus infection can cause sensorineural hearing loss, neurological impairment and growth restriction.

Correct answer: Congenital sensorineural hearing loss
Moderate
  • A. I should skip meals when my glucose level is high
  • B. I should monitor glucose and follow my prescribed meal plan
  • C. I can stop monitoring once fetal movements are normal
  • D. I should take extra sugar before every antenatal visit

Explanation: Regular glucose monitoring and adherence to the prescribed meal plan help maintain maternal glucose control and reduce complications.

Correct answer: I should monitor glucose and follow my prescribed meal plan
  • A. Placenta accreta
  • B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
  • C. Gestational trophoblastic disease
  • D. Uncomplicated breech presentation

Explanation: Placenta praevia over a previous uterine scar increases the risk that placental villi will abnormally attach to or invade the myometrium…

Correct answer: Placenta accreta
  • A. Thiamine deficiency
  • B. Vitamin K excess
  • C. Calcium overload
  • D. Iron toxicity

Explanation: Prolonged vomiting can deplete thiamine and lead to Wernicke encephalopathy, which may present with confusion, ataxia and eye movement…

Correct answer: Thiamine deficiency
Moderate
  • A. Transvaginal ultrasonography
  • B. Routine urine microscopy
  • C. Chest radiography
  • D. Abdominal plain radiography

Explanation: Transvaginal ultrasonography can identify an intrauterine pregnancy or an adnexal mass at an early gestation and is central to assessing…

Correct answer: Transvaginal ultrasonography