All Free Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs with Answers
Every Medical Surgical Nursing question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
600 questions · page 19 of 30
- A. Metastasis
- B. Hyperplasia
- C. Differentiation
- D. Encapsulation
Explanation: Metastasis is the movement of malignant cells from the original site to distant tissues through lymphatic or blood vessels.
Correct answer: Metastasis- A. A slower-growing tumour
- B. A more aggressive tumour
- C. A completely benign tumour
- D. A tumour limited to one organ
Explanation: Poor differentiation and frequent mitosis usually indicate rapid growth and more aggressive malignant behaviour.
Correct answer: A more aggressive tumour- A. Teach deep breathing and leg exercises
- B. Restrict oral fluids before admission
- C. Keep the patient on strict bed rest
- D. Apply a pressure dressing before surgery
Explanation: Teaching breathing, coughing, and leg exercises helps prevent atelectasis and venous stasis after surgery.
Correct answer: Teach deep breathing and leg exercises- A. Document the expected taste change
- B. Report the finding to the oncology team
- C. Give an extra dose of the prescribed antiemetic
- D. Encourage vigorous exercise immediately
Explanation: Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, so new tinnitus or hearing changes require prompt assessment and reporting.
Correct answer: Report the finding to the oncology team- A. Use a soft toothbrush and avoid rectal procedures
- B. Encourage flossing after every meal
- C. Give intramuscular injections as prescribed
- D. Use a firm-bristled brush for gum cleaning
Explanation: Severe thrombocytopenia increases the risk of bleeding, so gentle oral care and avoidance of invasive rectal procedures are appropriate.
Correct answer: Use a soft toothbrush and avoid rectal procedures- A. Plan rest periods between essential activities
- B. Remain in bed throughout the treatment course
- C. Stop eating protein until fatigue resolves
- D. Use unapproved herbal stimulants every morning
Explanation: Radiotherapy-related fatigue is common, and planned rest with balanced activity helps conserve energy without causing unnecessary…
Correct answer: Plan rest periods between essential activities- A. Stop the infusion and activate emergency care
- B. Slow the infusion and reassess after 30 minutes
- C. Offer oral fluids and continue observation
- D. Place a warm compress over the infusion site
Explanation: Wheezing, angioedema, and hypotension indicate a potentially life-threatening infusion reaction involving airway and circulation.
Correct answer: Stop the infusion and activate emergency care- A. A moist pink stoma
- B. Mild incisional discomfort
- C. A dusky purple stoma
- D. Small amounts of flatus
Explanation: A dusky or purple stoma may indicate impaired blood supply and requires urgent assessment.
Correct answer: A dusky purple stoma- A. Assess airway and breathing, then seek urgent help
- B. Give the next opioid dose to prevent pain
- C. Place the patient flat and leave the room
- D. Encourage the patient to walk to improve alertness
Explanation: Marked sedation and slow breathing suggest opioid-induced respiratory depression, so airway and breathing take priority.
Correct answer: Assess airway and breathing, then seek urgent help- A. Explore the patient's goals and discuss palliative support
- B. Explain that all chemotherapy must continue until death
- C. Tell the family to decide because the patient is distressed
- D. Avoid discussing prognosis to prevent further anxiety
Explanation: Palliative care focuses on comfort, symptom control, quality of life, and care that matches the patient's goals.
Correct answer: Explore the patient's goals and discuss palliative support- A. They remain dependent on normal growth signals
- B. They evade apoptosis and continue dividing
- C. They retain complete contact inhibition
- D. They always form a well-defined capsule
Explanation: Cancer cells may avoid apoptosis, or programmed cell death, and continue dividing abnormally.
Correct answer: They evade apoptosis and continue dividing- A. Restrict protein until bowel function improves
- B. Assess nutritional status and refer for support
- C. Keep the patient fasting until the operation
- D. Encourage vigorous exercise before admission
Explanation: Poor nutrition increases the risk of infection, delayed wound healing and weakness after surgery.
Correct answer: Assess nutritional status and refer for support- A. Use prolonged close contact to provide reassurance
- B. Limit time near the source and maximize distance
- C. Remove the radioactive source when the patient reports pain
- D. Ask pregnant staff members to provide all direct care
Explanation: For temporary brachytherapy, radiation exposure is reduced by limiting time, increasing distance and using shielding as directed by the…
Correct answer: Limit time near the source and maximize distance- A. Avoid crowds and report a temperature promptly
- B. Receive live vaccines without consulting the provider
- C. Use rectal thermometers to obtain an exact reading
- D. Eat raw eggs to increase white blood cell production
Explanation: Leukopenia increases susceptibility to infection, so avoiding sick contacts and reporting fever promptly are important.
Correct answer: Avoid crowds and report a temperature promptly- A. Tumour lysis syndrome
- B. Dumping syndrome
- C. Superior vena cava syndrome
- D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation: Rapid tumour breakdown can release potassium, phosphate and uric acid, causing electrolyte disturbances, renal injury and dysrhythmias.
Correct answer: Tumour lysis syndrome- A. Encourage a high-fibre meal immediately
- B. Assess hydration and notify the oncology team
- C. Give an antidiarrhoeal without further assessment
- D. Reassure the patient that diarrhoea is harmless
Explanation: Severe diarrhoea can cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance and treatment-related bowel injury.
Correct answer: Assess hydration and notify the oncology team- A. Document the symptoms as expected fatigue
- B. Check glucose as ordered and notify the provider
- C. Encourage sugary drinks until symptoms resolve
- D. Withhold all prescribed medicines for 24 hours
Explanation: Checkpoint inhibitors can cause immune-mediated endocrine disorders, including new diabetes with hyperglycaemia.
Correct answer: Check glucose as ordered and notify the provider- A. A clean, dry dressing with intact edges
- B. Mild fatigue after a treatment session
- C. Redness, tenderness and purulent drainage at the site
- D. A blood return that is present without discomfort
Explanation: Redness, tenderness and purulent drainage suggest a catheter-related infection and require prompt assessment and treatment.
Correct answer: Redness, tenderness and purulent drainage at the site- A. Stop the opioid abruptly without advice
- B. Assess the bowel pattern and give the prescribed laxative
- C. Restrict fluids to reduce abdominal discomfort
- D. Wait until vomiting develops before reporting it
Explanation: Constipation is a common opioid effect and should be prevented or treated with a prescribed bowel regimen, fluids and appropriate activity…
Correct answer: Assess the bowel pattern and give the prescribed laxative- A. Remain on bed rest throughout the day
- B. Plan important activities during periods of greatest energy
- C. Avoid all physical activity until treatment ends
- D. Drink caffeinated beverages instead of eating meals
Explanation: Energy conservation involves balancing activity with rest and scheduling essential tasks when energy is highest.
Correct answer: Plan important activities during periods of greatest energy