All Free Veterinary Science MCQs with Answers

• A. Prion
• B. Protozoan
• C. Helminth
• D. Gram negative bacterium

Explanation: Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by an abnormal misfolded prion protein rather than a conventional microorganism.

• A. Metazoonosis
• B. Saprozoonosis
• C. Cyclozoonosis
• D. Amphixenosis

Explanation: A saprozoonosis involves an animal host and a nonanimal reservoir or developmental site, such as soil, water, or decaying organic matter.

• A. Neurological disease and dog bites
• B. Chronic arthritis and tick transmission
• C. Abortion storms and mosquito transmission
• D. Skin nodules and contaminated hides

Explanation: Rift Valley fever commonly causes severe abortion outbreaks and high mortality in young ruminants.

• A. Mycoplasma gallisepticum
• B. Chlamydia abortus
• C. Coxiella burnetii
• D. Chlamydia psittaci

Explanation: Chlamydia psittaci causes psittacosis, especially after exposure to infected birds and their dried droppings or respiratory secretions.

• A. Amplifying vertebrate hosts
• B. Dead-end vertebrate hosts
• C. Biological mosquito vectors
• D. Environmental fungal reservoirs

Explanation: Birds develop sufficient viraemia to infect mosquitoes, so they act as amplifying vertebrate hosts.

• A. Anthrax
• B. Foot-and-mouth disease
• C. Brucellosis
• D. Rabies

Explanation: Foot-and-mouth disease affects susceptible cloven-hoofed animals and is not regarded as a naturally transmitted human zoonosis.

• A. Metazoonosis
• B. Cyclozoonosis
• C. Direct zoonosis
• D. Saprozoonosis

Explanation: A direct zoonosis can pass between vertebrate hosts by direct contact, droplet spread, or contamination without essential multiplication…

• A. Handling intact wool after shearing
• B. Milking apparently healthy cows only
• C. Cleaning empty poultry houses
• D. Handling aborted fetuses and placental tissues

Explanation: Rift Valley fever virus is present at high levels in blood, aborted fetuses, placentas, and other tissues of infected animals.

• A. They provide an early warning of pathogen circulation
• B. They replace laboratory confirmation of human cases
• C. They permanently remove pathogens from vectors
• D. They are selected only for high meat production

Explanation: Sentinel animals are monitored because infection or seroconversion in them may reveal circulation of a pathogen before many human cases…

• A. Feeding birds raw offal to reduce shedding
• B. Improving ventilation and controlling dried fecal dust
• C. Using antibiotics in every exposed worker
• D. Vaccinating workers against rabies

Explanation: Chlamydia psittaci can spread when contaminated secretions or dried feces become airborne, so ventilation, wet cleaning, protective…

• A. Cooked eggs from healthy hens
• B. Pasteurized milk from vaccinated cattle
• C. Raw or undercooked pork from infected pigs
• D. Properly frozen fish from clean waters

Explanation: Brucella suis is associated mainly with pigs and can infect people through contact with infected tissues or consumption of inadequately…

• A. Removal of stray livestock from city areas
• B. Routine vaccination of all domestic cats
• C. Treatment of infected dogs with antibiotics
• D. Annual mass vaccination of domestic dogs

Explanation: Vaccinating a high proportion of domestic dogs interrupts transmission within the main urban reservoir population.

• A. A clean wound with opposed edges
• B. A contaminated wound with dead tissue
• C. An infected wound with wide separation
• D. A granulating wound left open

Explanation: Healing by first intention occurs when clean wound edges are accurately opposed with minimal tissue loss.

• A. Stimulating acetylcholine receptors
• B. Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels
• C. Increasing calcium entry into nerves
• D. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

Explanation: Lidocaine prevents the generation and conduction of nerve impulses by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels.

• A. Severe cyanosis with fixed pupils
• B. Bradycardia with warm extremities
• C. Tachycardia with pale mucous membranes
• D. Profound hypotension with no response

Explanation: During compensated hypovolaemic shock, sympathetic activity increases heart rate and peripheral vasoconstriction, producing pale mucous…

• A. Subcutaneous fat over the limb
• B. Articular cartilage within the joint
• C. Synovial membrane beside the bone
• D. Periosteum around the fracture

Explanation: The periosteum contains osteogenic cells and contributes substantially to external callus formation during fracture healing.

• A. Returned into the original body cavity
• B. Removed permanently without surgery
• C. Seen through an unbroken skin surface
• D. Separated from the hernial sac by force

Explanation: A reducible hernia contains tissue that can be pushed or returned through the hernial ring into its normal body cavity.

• A. Concentrated hydrogen peroxide solution
• B. Sterile isotonic saline solution
• C. Strong alcoholic iodine solution
• D. Undiluted chlorhexidine solution

Explanation: Sterile isotonic saline is gentle on viable tissue and effectively removes debris during wound lavage.

• A. Polypropylene
• B. Nylon
• C. Polydioxanone
• D. Stainless steel

Explanation: Polydioxanone is a synthetic absorbable monofilament that retains useful tensile strength for deeper tissue healing.

• A. A blocked external ear canal
• B. A fractured mandibular tooth
• C. A uterine torsion before calving
• D. A reticular foreign body causing disease

Explanation: Rumenotomy is commonly performed in cattle to remove penetrating foreign bodies associated with traumatic reticuloperitonitis.