All Free Pharmacology MCQs with Answers
Every Pharmacology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
476 questions · page 2 of 24
- A. Methicillin
- B. Carbenicillin
- C. Lincomycin
- D. Oxacillin
Explanation: Carbenicillin is an antipseudomonal penicillin with activity against Pseudomonas and certain Proteus species, including indole-positive…
Correct answer: Carbenicillin22. A distinict advantage that tetracyclines have over penicillins is that tetracyclines_____________?
- A. Have no side effects
- B. Do not cause superinfections
- C. Are safer to use during pregnancy
- D. Have a wider range of antibacterial activity
Explanation: Tetracyclines inhibit a broad range of bacteria, including many organisms not covered by penicillins, so their main advantage here is…
Correct answer: Have a wider range of antibacterial activity23. Which of the following antibiotics is most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis ?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Penicillin
- C. Clindamycin
- D. Cephalosporin
Explanation: Clindamycin is classically associated with Clostridioides difficile overgrowth and pseudomembranous colitis because it markedly disrupts…
Correct answer: Clindamycin- A. Optic nerve
- B. Facial nerve
- C. Auditory nerve
- D. Trigeminal nerve
Explanation: Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside that can cause irreversible ototoxicity, particularly affecting the vestibular and auditory portions of…
Correct answer: Auditory nerve- A. Cell wall
- B. Cell membrane
- C. Protein
- D. DNA
Explanation: Chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyl-transferase, thereby blocking bacterial protein synthesis.
Correct answer: Protein- A. Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism
- B. Reduced because of increased protein binding
- C. Increased because of reduction of vitamin sources
- D. Increase because of decrease renal excretion of the anticoagulant
Explanation: Broad-spectrum antibiotics reduce intestinal bacteria that normally contribute to vitamin K production, lowering clotting-factor synthesis…
Correct answer: Increased because of reduction of vitamin sources- A. Isoniazid
- B. Ethambutol
- C. Rifampicin
- D. Pirazinamide
Explanation: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuritis by promoting functional vitamin B6 deficiency, so pyridoxine is often given prophylactically.
Correct answer: Isoniazid- A. Cholestatic Jaundice
- B. Grey Syndrome
- C. Fanconi Syndrome
- D. Jarish - Herxheimer reaction
Explanation: Rapid killing of Treponema pallidum after penicillin can release inflammatory products and produce the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction, with…
Correct answer: Jarish - Herxheimer reaction- A. Disphenyl hydantoin
- B. Diphenhydramine
- C. Digoxin
- D. Doxycycline
Explanation: Doxycycline, a tetracycline, binds calcium in developing teeth and bones, causing permanent tooth discoloration and enamel defects.
Correct answer: Doxycycline- A. Pemphigus
- B. Herpes simplex
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Syphilis
Explanation: Fluconazole inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis and is commonly used for Candida infections, including mucosal and systemic candidiasis.
Correct answer: Candidiasis- A. Benzathine
- B. Procaine
- C. Crystalline
- D. Benzathamine
Explanation: Crystalline penicillin, meaning aqueous penicillin G, can be administered intravenously for serious infections.
Correct answer: Crystalline- A. Tetracycline
- B. Aminoglycoside
- C. Penicillin
- D. Cephalosporin
Explanation: Tetracyclines can cause photosensitivity because they make the skin more reactive to ultraviolet light.
Correct answer: Tetracycline- A. Lincomycin
- B. Chloramphenicol
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Penicillin
Explanation: Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic, whereas penicillins work best against actively multiplying bacteria, so the combination may antagonize…
Correct answer: Penicillin- A. Neisseria meningitis
- B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- C. Treponema Pallidum
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Penicillin has traditional activity against susceptible Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae and remains the classic treatment…
Correct answer: All of the above- A. Ethambutol
- B. Isoniazid
- C. Rifampicin
- D. Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside that can damage cranial nerve VIII, producing vestibular or auditory ototoxicity during prolonged…
Correct answer: Streptomycin- A. Are bacteriostatic
- B. Distributed only extracellularly
- C. Excreted unchanged in urine
- D. Teratogenic
Explanation: Aminoglycosides are bactericidal, not bacteriostatic, because they cause misreading of mRNA and inhibit protein synthesis irreversibly.
Correct answer: Are bacteriostatic- A. Cephapirin
- B. Cefadroxil
- C. Cefaclor
- D. Cefixime
Explanation: Cefadroxil is an orally active first-generation cephalosporin. Cephapirin is parenteral first generation, while cefaclor and cefixime…
Correct answer: Cefadroxil- A. Ceftrioxone
- B. Cefaclor
- C. Cefepime
- D. Cefuroxime
Explanation: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin with broad Gram-negative activity and useful antipseudomonal coverage.
Correct answer: Cefepime- A. Has no side-effects
- B. Is used in management of ANUG
- C. Is mainly concentrated in saliva
- D. Is active against gram-positive aerobes
Explanation: Metronidazole is used in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis because it is effective against the associated anaerobic bacteria.
Correct answer: Is used in management of ANUG- A. Rifampicin
- B. Ethionamide
- C. Cycloserine
- D. Ethambutol
Explanation: Isoniazid and ethionamide have cross-resistance because both interfere with mycolic-acid synthesis through related activation and target…
Correct answer: Ethionamide