All Free Pharmacology MCQs with Answers
Every Pharmacology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
476 questions · page 3 of 24
- A. Anaerobic
- B. Gram positive organism
- C. Gram negative organisms
- D. Yeast and fungi
Explanation: Broad-spectrum antibiotics suppress much of the normal bacterial flora, removing competition and allowing Candida and other fungi to…
Correct answer: Yeast and fungi- A. Higher oral biovailability
- B. Lower oral biovailability
- C. Equal oral biovailability
- D. Can be given Parenterally
Explanation: Amoxicillin has higher and more reliable oral bioavailability than ampicillin, so food has less effect on its absorption and…
Correct answer: Higher oral biovailability- A. Gentamycin
- B. Tetracycline
- C. Aztreonam
- D. Neomycin
Explanation: Neomycin is an aminoglycoside commonly combined with polymyxin and bacitracin in topical preparations for mixed bacterial skin infections.
Correct answer: Neomycin- A. Burns
- B. Tinea
- C. Non-specific vaginitis
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Povidone-iodine is a broad-spectrum antiseptic used on burns, has antifungal activity in conditions such as tinea, and is also used…
Correct answer: All of the above- A. Penicillin
- B. Imipenem
- C. Cephalosporins
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Beta-lactam antibiotics contain a beta-lactam ring and include penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems such as imipenem.
Correct answer: All of the above- A. Nystatin
- B. Amphotericin
- C. Interferons
- D. Thiobendazole
Explanation: Disseminated candidiasis is a serious systemic fungal infection requiring an intensive systemic antifungal, classically amphotericin B.
Correct answer: Amphotericin- A. Increased excretion of probenacid in the feaces and perspiration
- B. Increased excretion of probenacid in urine
- C. Increased metabolis of penciling G
- D. Decreased renal excretion of penciling G
Explanation: Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion of penicillin G, reducing its renal excretion and prolonging its plasma half-life.
Correct answer: Decreased renal excretion of penciling G- A. Cephalexin
- B. Cloxacillin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Dictoxacillin
Explanation: Piperacillin is an extended-spectrum antipseudomonal penicillin, often combined with tazobactam.
Correct answer: Piperacillin- A. Cefoperazone
- B. Cefaclor
- C. Ceftriaxone
- D. Cefotaxime
Explanation: Cefoperazone is a third-generation cephalosporin with important activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Correct answer: Cefoperazone- A. Suphacetamide
- B. Sulphadiazine
- C. Silversulphadiazine
- D. Mafenide
Explanation: Sulfacetamide, silver sulfadiazine, and mafenide are used topically, particularly for ocular, burn, or local wound infections.
Correct answer: Sulphadiazine- A. Amoxicillin
- B. Penicillin G
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Cloxacillin
Explanation: Cloxacillin is resistant to staphylococcal penicillinase because of its sterically protected beta-lactam ring.
Correct answer: Cloxacillin- A. Carbapenems
- B. Monobactams
- C. Cephamycins
- D. Nitrofurantoins
Explanation: Carbapenems, monobactams, and cephamycins inhibit bacterial cell-wall synthesis by targeting penicillin-binding proteins.
Correct answer: Nitrofurantoins- A. Protease inhibitor
- B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
- C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
- D. Fusion inhibitor
Explanation: Nevirapine binds to and inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase without competing with nucleosides, so it is a non-nucleoside reverse…
Correct answer: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor- A. Vancomycin
- B. Imipenem
- C. Teichoplanin
- D. Linezolid
Explanation: MRSA is resistant to methicillin and generally to other beta-lactams, including carbapenems such as imipenem.
Correct answer: Imipenem- A. Clotrimazole
- B. Clotrimoxazole
- C. Ornidazole
- D. Propronolol
Explanation: Clotrimazole is an imidazole antifungal available as a topical preparation for candidiasis.
Correct answer: Clotrimazole- A. Granulocytes
- B. Immunoglobulins
- C. Opsonins
- D. T lymphocytes
Explanation: HIV primarily destroys CD4-positive T helper lymphocytes, producing progressive impairment of cell-mediated immunity.
Correct answer: T lymphocytes- A. 30S ribosomes
- B. 50S ribosomes
- C. Cell membrane
- D. Inhibiting DNA gyrase
Explanation: Tetracyclines bind reversibly to the 30S bacterial ribosomal subunit and prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA.
Correct answer: 30S ribosomes58. Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria______________?
- A. Atovaquone + Proguanil
- B. Artemisinin
- C. Quinine + Tetracycline
- D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime
Explanation: Pyrimethamine with sulfadoxine was classically administered as a single-dose treatment for malaria, although it does not provide radical…
Correct answer: Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime- A. Erythromycin
- B. Roxithromycin
- C. Neomycin
- D. Calithromycin
Explanation: Erythromycin, roxithromycin and clarithromycin are macrolides that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S subunit.
Correct answer: Neomycin- A. Destroyed by gastic acid
- B. Very active against sensitive gram positive coci
- C. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis
- D. More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids
Explanation: Penicillin G is acid-labile, active against susceptible gram-positive cocci and historically used intravenously for meningococcal…
Correct answer: More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids