Free Cardiovascular Drugs MCQs with Answers

• A. It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure
• B. Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability
• C. Mainly depression of A-V conduction
• D. Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium

Explanation: Nifedipine blocks L-type calcium channels predominantly in vascular smooth muscle, causing arteriolar dilation and a fall in systemic…

• A. Regulates vasomotor tone
• B. Acts via cAMP
• C. Present in cigarette smoke
• D. It is important in penile erection

Explanation: Nitric oxide activates soluble guanylyl cyclase, increasing cGMP, not cAMP.

• A. Anti hypertensive
• B. Antidiabetic
• C. Antipalatelet
• D. Anticoagulant

Explanation: Clopidogrel irreversibly blocks platelet P2Y12 ADP receptors, reducing platelet aggregation.

• A. Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes
• B. Worsening of preexisting asthma
• C. Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation
• D. Precipitate migrainic effect

Explanation: Abrupt beta-blocker withdrawal can precipitate angina or myocardial ischaemia, and beta-blockers can worsen asthma and mask hypoglycaemia.

• A. Dicumarol
• B. Idphenadione
• C. Heparin
• D. Phenindone

Explanation: Heparin enhances the activity of plasma antithrombin III, which then inactivates thrombin and factor Xa.

• A. Transient hypercoagulability is seen
• B. Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus
• C. In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form
• D. The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

Explanation: Warfarin's S-enantiomer is more potent than its R-enantiomer, generally by about three- to fivefold, so the claim that R is four times…

• A. Phenylbutazone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Rifampicin
• D. B & C

Explanation: Phenylbutazone can potentiate warfarin, whereas vitamin K reverses its action and rifampicin induces hepatic metabolism, reducing its…

• A. Anti-inflaqmmatory drug
• B. Antibiotic
• C. Anti-arthritic drug
• D. Antiplatelet drug

Explanation: Triflusal inhibits platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet drug used to reduce thrombotic events.

• A. Vaso dilator
• B. Vaso constrictor
• C. Neuroleptic
• D. Anti coagulant

Explanation: Felypressin is a vasopressin analogue that causes vasoconstriction and is used with some local anaesthetics to prolong their action.

• A. Aspirin
• B. Penicillinium
• C. Amino epsilon caproic acid
• D. Dipheny 1 hydantoin

Explanation: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase and impairs primary haemostasis, so it can worsen bleeding in haemophilia.

• A. Tranexamic acid
• B. Clopidogrel
• C. Aminocarproic Acid
• D. Factor VIII cryoprecipitate

Explanation: Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation and would increase postoperative bleeding, offering no therapeutic benefit in haemophilia.

• A. Warfarin sodium
• B. Sodium oxalate
• C. Heparin
• D. Phenindone

Explanation: Heparin is preferred during pregnancy because it does not cross the placenta, whereas warfarin crosses the placenta and can cause fetal…

• A. Pregnancy
• B. Nephrotic syndorme
• C. Newborn
• D. Liver disease
• E. Both A & B

Explanation: Pregnancy and nephrotic syndrome can reduce the apparent effect of oral anticoagulants because both are associated with a hypercoagulable…

• A. Rifampicin
• B. Amoxycillin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Tetracycline

Explanation: Rifampicin induces hepatic drug-metabolising enzymes and increases warfarin breakdown, thereby shortening its anticoagulant effect and…

• A. Protamine sultate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Factor VIII
• D. EADA

Explanation: Protamine sulfate is a positively charged antidote that binds and neutralises the negatively charged heparin molecule.