All Free Pharmacology MCQs with Answers

• A. Flunarizine
• B. Divalprox sodium
• C. Zonisamide
• D. Propanolol

Explanation: Flunarizine, divalproex sodium and propranolol are used for migraine prevention.

• A. Sedative
• B. Alkaloid
• C. Diuretic
• D. Anti hypertensive
• E. Both A & B

Explanation: Morphine is a naturally occurring opium alkaloid and a central nervous system depressant with sedative effects.

• A. Dopaminergic receptor - blocking actions
• B. Gabamimetic actions
• C. Gaba-inhibitory actions
• D. Serotonin receptor - blocking action

Explanation: Granisetron is a selective 5-HT3 serotonin-receptor antagonist that prevents serotonin-mediated nausea and vomiting, especially after…

• A. Ondensetron
• B. Metaclopromide
• C. Chlorpromazine
• D. Dicyclomine

Explanation: Ondansetron, a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, is highly effective for acute chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

• A. Meprobamate
• B. Baclofen
• C. Diazepam
• D. Dantrolene sodium

Explanation: Meprobamate, baclofen and diazepam reduce muscle spasm through central nervous system actions.

• A. Loratidine
• B. Acrivastatine
• C. Cyclizine
• D. Terfenidine

Explanation: Cyclizine is a first-generation H1 antihistamine and commonly causes sedation and anticholinergic effects.

• A. Dexamethasone
• B. Beclomethasone
• C. Budesonide
• D. Fluticasone

Explanation: Beclomethasone, budesonide and fluticasone are standard inhaled corticosteroids for airway disease.

• A. Propofol
• B. Sevofluorane
• C. Naloxane
• D. Flumizenil

Explanation: Propofol is a short-acting intravenous general anaesthetic used for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia.

• A. Miosis
• B. Yawning
• C. Lacrimation
• D. Diarrhoea

Explanation: Opioid withdrawal causes autonomic overactivity with mydriasis, yawning, lacrimation, sweating, abdominal cramps, and diarrhoea.

• A. D-tubocuraine
• B. Succinyl choline
• C. Pancuronium
• D. Gallamine

Explanation: Succinylcholine is an ultra-short-acting depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with onset usually within 30–60 seconds.

• A. Intravenous anaesthetic agent
• B. Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant
• C. Short-acting narcotic
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular muscle relaxant, whereas the listed choices do not include that category.

• A. Pancuronium
• B. Rocuronium
• C. Vecuronium
• D. Atracurium

Explanation: Pancuronium has significant vagolytic effects and can produce tachycardia and cardiovascular stimulation, making it undesirable in this…

• A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
• B. Serotonergic receptors
• C. Dopaminergic receptors
• D. GABA receptors

Explanation: Many antidepressants, especially tricyclics, cause dry mouth by blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and reducing salivary…

• A. Bleomycin
• B. Doxorubicin
• C. Captopril
• D. Prazosin

Explanation: Doxorubicin causes dose-dependent cardiomyopathy through free-radical injury and myocardial damage, making cumulative cardiac toxicity its…

• A. Vincristine.
• B. Tamoxifen.
• C. Doxorubicin.
• D. Cyclophosphamide

Explanation: Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis through its toxic metabolite acrolein, which irritates the bladder.

• A. Scavanges free radicals
• B. Enhances the production of free radicals
• C. Promotes damage of DNA
• D. Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Explanation: Amifostine is a radioprotective cytoprotective agent whose active metabolite scavenges free radicals and reduces radiation-induced tissue…

• A. Anemia
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Malaria
• D. Filariasis

Explanation: Filgrastim is recombinant granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, which increases neutrophil production and shortens chemotherapy-related…

• A. Cyclophosphamide
• B. Doxorubicin
• C. Methotrexate
• D. Cisplatin

Explanation: Methotrexate is cell-cycle specific because it inhibits dihydrofolate reductase during the S phase, blocking DNA synthesis.

• A. Alpha TNF receptors
• B. IL-2 receptors
• C. Tyrosin Kinase receptors
• D. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase

Explanation: Imatinib selectively inhibits tyrosine kinases, especially the BCR-ABL fusion protein in chronic myeloid leukaemia, as well as c-KIT and…

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Epilepsy
• C. Wernicke's ecephalo pathy
• D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Explanation: Thalidomide is used in erythema nodosum leprosum because of its immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory effects.