All Free Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs with Answers

Every Medical Surgical Nursing question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

600 questions · page 26 of 30

  • A. Collect the first urine passed after waking
  • B. Clean the perineum and collect the midstream urine
  • C. Insert an indwelling catheter before collecting urine
  • D. Collect urine from the drainage bag of a catheter

Explanation: Cleaning the perineum and collecting midstream urine reduces contamination from skin and urethral organisms.

Correct answer: Clean the perineum and collect the midstream urine
Hard
  • A. Mild periorbital edema
  • B. Urine that appears tea coloured
  • C. Blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg
  • D. Reduced appetite during breakfast

Explanation: Severe hypertension can cause complications such as encephalopathy, heart failure, or seizures, so it requires prompt reporting.

Correct answer: Blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg
  • A. Heavy proteinuria with low serum albumin
  • B. Mild proteinuria with high serum albumin
  • C. Glucosuria with low serum creatinine
  • D. Hematuria with high serum calcium

Explanation: Damage to the glomerular filtration barrier causes heavy protein loss in urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema.

Correct answer: Heavy proteinuria with low serum albumin
Moderate
  • A. Prerenal injury caused by reduced renal perfusion
  • B. Intrinsic injury caused by glomerular inflammation
  • C. Postrenal injury caused by ureteric obstruction
  • D. Chronic injury caused by long-term nephron loss

Explanation: Fluid loss reduces circulating volume and renal perfusion, producing prerenal acute kidney injury.

Correct answer: Prerenal injury caused by reduced renal perfusion
  • A. Measure blood pressure on the fistula arm
  • B. Apply a tight dressing over the fistula daily
  • C. Check for a thrill and bruit each shift
  • D. Use the fistula arm for routine venipuncture

Explanation: A palpable thrill and audible bruit indicate blood flow through the fistula.

Correct answer: Check for a thrill and bruit each shift
Hard
  • A. Normal urine output
  • B. Polyuria
  • C. Oliguria
  • D. Urinary frequency

Explanation: Adult urine output below 400 mL in 24 hours is commonly described as oliguria.

Correct answer: Oliguria
Moderate
  • A. Red blood cell casts in the urine
  • B. Clear urine with no formed elements
  • C. Large glucose loss without ketones
  • D. Many calcium crystals without blood

Explanation: Red blood cell casts form in damaged renal tubules after bleeding from the glomeruli and strongly support glomerulonephritis.

Correct answer: Red blood cell casts in the urine
  • A. Encourage vigorous oral fluids immediately
  • B. Apply a warm compress and reassess later
  • C. Report possible infected urinary obstruction promptly
  • D. Ask the patient to walk until the stone passes

Explanation: Fever with obstruction suggests an infected, obstructed urinary tract, which can rapidly progress to sepsis and requires urgent medical…

Correct answer: Report possible infected urinary obstruction promptly
Hard
  • A. Place the patient supine and assess vital signs
  • B. Offer a high-potassium fruit drink
  • C. Ask the patient to stand and walk slowly
  • D. Increase the prescribed ultrafiltration rate

Explanation: Hypotension during dialysis may result from excessive or rapid fluid removal, so the immediate priority is to support circulation and…

Correct answer: Place the patient supine and assess vital signs
Hard
  • A. I will drink extra water whenever my ankles swell
  • B. I will record drinks, soup, ice, and other liquid foods
  • C. I can ignore my daily weight if I have no thirst
  • D. I will stop counting fluids on days when urine increases

Explanation: All liquid sources, including soup, ice, and liquid medicines, contribute to the daily fluid allowance and should be recorded.

Correct answer: I will record drinks, soup, ice, and other liquid foods
  • A. Prerenal kidney injury from reduced renal perfusion
  • B. Intrinsic kidney injury from tubular damage
  • C. Postrenal kidney injury from urinary obstruction
  • D. Chronic kidney disease from gradual nephron loss

Explanation: The enlarged prostate obstructs urine flow, causing pressure to build above the obstruction and impairing kidney function.

Correct answer: Postrenal kidney injury from urinary obstruction
  • A. Reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys
  • B. Increased production of erythropoietin by the liver
  • C. Excessive destruction of platelets in the spleen
  • D. Increased absorption of iron from the intestine

Explanation: Diseased kidneys produce less erythropoietin, so the bone marrow receives less stimulation to make red blood cells.

Correct answer: Reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys
Hard
  • A. Slow the next exchange and reassess the drainage
  • B. Report suspected peritonitis promptly to the health-care provider
  • C. Encourage the patient to walk to improve drainage
  • D. Add extra fluid to the next dialysis exchange

Explanation: Cloudy dialysate with abdominal pain and fever strongly suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: Report suspected peritonitis promptly to the health-care provider
  • A. Discard it after measuring the urine output
  • B. Place it in a specimen container for laboratory analysis
  • C. Flush it with tap water before returning it to the patient
  • D. Store it in the medication refrigerator until discharge

Explanation: Stone analysis can identify its composition and guide prevention of recurrence.

Correct answer: Place it in a specimen container for laboratory analysis
  • A. Stop the medicine once the urine becomes clear
  • B. Take the medicine for the prescribed course even if symptoms improve
  • C. Save the remaining medicine for the next urinary infection
  • D. Take the medicine only when urinary pain returns

Explanation: The full prescribed course helps eradicate the infection and reduces treatment failure and resistance.

Correct answer: Take the medicine for the prescribed course even if symptoms improve
Moderate
  • A. A negative balance of 600 mL
  • B. A positive balance of 600 mL
  • C. A positive balance of 2,400 mL
  • D. A negative balance of 2,400 mL

Explanation: Fluid balance equals intake minus output: 1,500 mL minus 900 mL equals a positive 600 mL.

Correct answer: A positive balance of 600 mL
Moderate
  • A. Apply gentle skin care and reposition the patient regularly
  • B. Restrict all movement to prevent loss of body protein
  • C. Massage the swollen areas vigorously every four hours
  • D. Place the patient in a dependent position for prolonged periods

Explanation: Severe edema stretches the skin and increases the risk of pressure injury and infection.

Correct answer: Apply gentle skin care and reposition the patient regularly
Hard
  • A. Irrigate the catheter routinely with sterile water
  • B. Check the tubing for kinks and dependent loops
  • C. Remove the catheter immediately without assessment
  • D. Increase the patient’s fluid intake without checking the system

Explanation: A blocked or kinked drainage system is a common and correctable cause of absent urine flow.

Correct answer: Check the tubing for kinks and dependent loops
  • A. Place the patient on cardiac monitoring and notify the provider
  • B. Offer a high-potassium fruit snack for additional energy
  • C. Encourage ambulation to improve muscle strength
  • D. Administer a potassium-containing intravenous fluid

Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, so cardiac monitoring and urgent reporting are the priority.

Correct answer: Place the patient on cardiac monitoring and notify the provider
Moderate
  • A. It binds dietary phosphate in the intestine
  • B. It directly increases erythropoietin production
  • C. It dissolves urinary stones in the renal pelvis
  • D. It prevents all bacterial infections of the urinary tract

Explanation: Calcium carbonate acts as a phosphate binder when taken with meals, reducing intestinal phosphate absorption.

Correct answer: It binds dietary phosphate in the intestine