All Free Veterinary Science MCQs with Answers

• A. Sheep
• B. Domestic dog
• C. Cattle
• D. Horse

Explanation: Adult Echinococcus granulosus lives in the small intestine of dogs and other canids, which therefore serve as definitive hosts.

• A. Bronchioles
• B. Nasal turbinates
• C. Gastric mucosa
• D. Renal pelvis

Explanation: After being swallowed, Gasterophilus intestinalis larvae attach to the gastric mucosa of horses and later pass out in faeces.

• A. Movement of parasites between host species
• B. Rapid multiplication outside the host
• C. Destruction of eggs by sunlight
• D. Temporary arrest of parasite development

Explanation: Hypobiosis is a period of arrested or greatly slowed development, often allowing immature parasites to survive unfavorable environmental…

• A. The cranial mesenteric artery
• B. The pulmonary artery
• C. The hepatic portal vein
• D. The renal artery

Explanation: Strongylus vulgaris larvae migrate from the intestinal wall to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches.

• A. Routine blood smear examination
• B. Perianal adhesive tape examination
• C. Urine sediment examination
• D. Sputum microscopy

Explanation: Female Oxyuris equi worms deposit their eggs around the perineum, where they can be collected with transparent adhesive tape.

• A. Small intestine and caecum
• B. Bile ducts and gall bladder
• C. Rumen and reticulum
• D. Trachea and bronchi

Explanation: Adult rumen flukes attach mainly to the rumen and reticulum of cattle, sheep and goats.

• A. Skeletal muscle fibres
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Bile duct epithelium
• D. Intestinal epithelial cells

Explanation: Eimeria undergoes asexual multiplication and sexual development within epithelial cells of the host intestine.

• A. Small inclusions near the erythrocyte margin
• B. Large cysts inside neutrophils
• C. Motile larvae between red cells
• D. Clusters of spores in platelets

Explanation: Anaplasma marginale appears as small, dense, basophilic inclusions positioned near the margin of bovine erythrocytes.

• A. Toxocara canis
• B. Fasciola hepatica
• C. Ancylostoma caninum
• D. Trichuris suis

Explanation: Fasciola hepatica eggs are large and operculated, with a relatively high specific gravity, so they may fail to float in ordinary flotation…

• A. Renal tubular cells
• B. Bile duct epithelial cells
• C. Lymphocytes and other leukocytes
• D. Intestinal goblet cells

Explanation: Theileria forms schizonts in lymphoid cells before merozoites infect erythrocytes.

• A. Require aquatic snails for transmission
• B. Live only inside red blood cells
• C. Complete development in the bile ducts
• D. Remain on the skin surface without burrowing

Explanation: Psoroptes mites are nonburrowing mites that live and feed on the skin surface, often causing exudative dermatitis.

• A. Intestinal wall of the intermediate host
• B. Tracheal wall of the definitive host
• C. Bile duct of the intermediate host
• D. Skin of the arthropod vector

Explanation: After an intermediate host ingests an egg, the oncosphere hatches in the intestine and penetrates the intestinal mucosa.

• A. The age of eggs in a faecal sample
• B. Anthelmintic effectiveness in a group of animals
• C. The number of adult worms in the lungs
• D. The species of tick transmitting infection

Explanation: The faecal egg count reduction test compares egg counts before and after treatment to estimate the effectiveness of an anthelmintic.

• A. Liquefactive necrosis
• B. Coagulative necrosis
• C. Caseous necrosis
• D. Fat necrosis

Explanation: Brain tissue commonly undergoes liquefactive necrosis because enzymatic digestion transforms the dead tissue into a soft, fluid mass.

• A. Neutrophil
• B. Epithelioid macrophage
• C. Plasma cell
• D. Mast cell

Explanation: Mature granulomas are mainly formed by activated macrophages that develop an epithelioid appearance, often with surrounding lymphocytes.

• A. Cell swelling with membrane rupture
• B. Marked neutrophil accumulation
• C. Cell shrinkage with formation of apoptotic bodies
• D. Extensive inflammation around dead cells

Explanation: Apoptosis involves programmed cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation and formation of membrane-bound apoptotic bodies, usually without…

• A. Reduced venous drainage
• B. Reduced cardiac output
• C. Obstruction of lymphatic flow
• D. Increased arterial blood flow

Explanation: Active hyperemia is caused by arteriolar dilation and increased blood inflow, such as during exercise or inflammation.

• A. Apple-green birefringence after Congo red staining
• B. Magenta material with periodic acid Schiff stain only
• C. Black granules after Prussian blue staining
• D. Metachromatic material after Gram staining

Explanation: Amyloid deposits bind Congo red and show apple-green birefringence under polarized light, which is a characteristic diagnostic finding.

• A. Presence of a fibrous capsule
• B. Ability to invade surrounding tissues
• C. Uniformity of the tumour cells
• D. Slow, localized growth

Explanation: Malignant neoplasms characteristically invade adjacent tissues and may metastasize to distant sites.

• A. Fever, pain and swelling
• B. Anaemia, hypoxia and acidosis
• C. Stasis, endothelial injury and hypercoagulability
• D. Vasodilation, oedema and haemorrhage

Explanation: Thrombosis is promoted by abnormal blood flow or stasis, endothelial injury and a hypercoagulable state.