All Free Pharmacology MCQs with Answers
Every Pharmacology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
476 questions · page 22 of 24
- A. Weight of the child
- B. Age of child
- C. Nature of the drug
- D. Chronicity of pain
Explanation: Drug doses in children are commonly calculated according to body weight, such as mg/kg, because children differ considerably in size and…
Correct answer: Weight of the child422. Which is a prodrug ?
- A. Enalapril
- B. clonidine
- C. Salmeterol
- D. Acetazolamide
Explanation: Enalapril is converted in the body to the active ACE inhibitor enalaprilat, making it a prodrug.
Correct answer: Enalapril- A. 12 hrs
- B. 20 hrs
- C. 25 hrs
- D. 30 hrs
Explanation: After five half-lives, about 97% of a drug has been eliminated and this is conventionally treated as complete elimination.
Correct answer: 20 hrs- A. Super sensitivity
- B. Idiosyncrasy
- C. Hyper sensitivity
- D. Hyper acidity
Explanation: An immune-mediated abnormal response to a drug is called hypersensitivity, such as an allergic reaction.
Correct answer: Hyper sensitivity- A. Salbutamol
- B. Verapamil
- C. Propranolol
- D. Paracetamol
Explanation: Propranolol undergoes marked hepatic first-pass metabolism, so its oral bioavailability is relatively low and variable.
Correct answer: Propranolol- A. phenytoin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Corticosteroids
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Phenytoin, diazepam, and corticosteroids can all cross the placenta to varying degrees, so all listed drugs are capable of fetal exposure.
Correct answer: All of the above- A. prevents or bypasses first pass effects
- B. Easy to administer
- C. Lipid soluble
- D. Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity
Explanation: Sublingual absorption drains directly into the systemic circulation, largely bypassing hepatic first-pass metabolism and allowing a rapid…
Correct answer: prevents or bypasses first pass effects- A. 84%
- B. 93%
- C. 80.5%
- D. 4.75%
Explanation: In first-order kinetics, the fraction remaining after four half-lives is (1/2)^4, or 6.25%, so 93.75% has been eliminated.
Correct answer: 93%- A. Passive diffusion
- B. Active transport
- C. Facilitated trasnsport
- D. Filtration
Explanation: Most drugs cross cell membranes by passive diffusion, moving down their concentration gradient without energy or a carrier.
Correct answer: Passive diffusion- A. Idosyncrasy
- B. Toxicity
- C. Side effect
- D. None of the above
Explanation: An exaggerated pharmacological effect may produce toxicity when the drug effect becomes harmful or excessive.
Correct answer: Toxicity- A. The proto type member of a class of drugs
- B. The oldest member of a class of drugs
- C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
- D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction
Explanation: A prodrug has little or no activity until enzymatically converted in the body into its active form.
Correct answer: An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite- A. 48
- B. 24
- C. 12
- D. 3
Explanation: Ten hours represent five half-lives, so the concentration falls successively from 96 to 48, 24, 12, 6, and finally 3 micrograms/mL.
Correct answer: 3- A. Morbidity index
- B. Moratality index
- C. Anesthetic ratio
- D. Therapeutic index
Explanation: The therapeutic index is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose, LD50/ED50.
Correct answer: Therapeutic index- A. Drug toxicty
- B. Drug potency
- C. Drug safety
- D. Drug's Lethal effect
Explanation: The therapeutic index compares toxic or lethal dosing with effective dosing, so it provides an indication of drug safety.
Correct answer: Drug safety- A. First trimester
- B. Second trimester
- C. Third trimester
- D. Soon after birth
Explanation: The first trimester is the major period of organ formation, making the embryo especially vulnerable to structural teratogenic effects.
Correct answer: First trimester436. The following statements are true about intravenous route of drug administration EXCEPT____________?
- A. It is useful in emergencies
- B. Aseptic precautions are required
- C. Bioavailability is 100%
- D. Suspensions can be administered
Explanation: Intravenous administration is useful in emergencies, requires aseptic technique, and gives 100% bioavailability.
Correct answer: Suspensions can be administered437. The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is_____________?
- A. Ld50
- B. Td50
- C. Md50
- D. Ed50
Explanation: ED50 is the dose that produces the specified therapeutic effect in 50% of a population.
Correct answer: Ed50- A. Is healthy
- B. With mild systemic disease
- C. With severe systemic disease
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ASA physical status P2 denotes a patient with mild systemic disease, such as well-controlled hypertension or diabetes without major…
Correct answer: With mild systemic disease- A. A normal healthy individual
- B. A patient with mild systemic disease
- C. A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ASA class III means severe systemic disease that causes significant functional limitation but is not incapacitating.
Correct answer: A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating- A. Inverse agonist
- B. Antagonist
- C. Agonist
- D. Partial agonist
Explanation: An agonist binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a response either directly or through downstream signaling.
Correct answer: Agonist