All Free Pathology MCQs with Answers

Every Pathology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

289 questions · page 13 of 15

  • A. Skin and mucosa
  • B. Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa
  • C. Skin, lips and tongue
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma arises from basal cells of the epidermis and is also found in pilosebaceous units, especially on sun-exposed skin.

Correct answer: Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa
  • A. Achalasia
  • B. Cacoguesia
  • C. Atelexis
  • D. Cacchexia

Explanation: Cancer cachexia is the wasting syndrome caused by reduced intake, altered metabolism and inflammatory cytokines such as TNF.

Correct answer: Cacchexia
  • A. All of the above
  • B. EBV
  • C. Hepatitis -B virus
  • D. HPV

Explanation: HPV, EBV and hepatitis B virus are all human oncogenic viruses associated with cancers such as cervical or anogenital carcinoma…

Correct answer: All of the above
  • A. Lung
  • B. Breast
  • C. Cervix
  • D. Ovary

Explanation: Breast carcinoma is generally the most frequently diagnosed malignant tumour in women worldwide.

Correct answer: Breast
  • A. T- cell
  • B. Lymph vessels
  • C. B - cell
  • D. Lymph nodes

Explanation: Burkitt lymphoma is a highly aggressive mature B-cell neoplasm caused by deregulation of MYC, usually through a t(8;14) translocation.

Correct answer: B - cell
  • A. Haemorrhage
  • B. Increased mitoses
  • C. Necrosis
  • D. Metastasis

Explanation: Metastasis is the most definitive evidence of malignancy because it proves that tumour cells can invade and establish growth at distant…

Correct answer: Metastasis
  • A. Mass screening of cervical cancer
  • B. Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity
  • C. Cigarette smokers
  • D. Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity

Explanation: Exfoliative cytology is particularly useful for mass screening of cervical cancer because abnormal epithelial cells can be collected from…

Correct answer: Mass screening of cervical cancer
  • A. Disorganized cell structure
  • B. Invasion of blood vessels
  • C. Encapulation
  • D. Rapid, erratic growth

Explanation: Malignant tumours typically show disorganized growth, rapid erratic proliferation and invasion, including vascular invasion.

Correct answer: Encapulation
  • A. Right axillary nodes
  • B. Left axillary nodes
  • C. Right supraclavicular nodes
  • D. Left supraclavicular nodes

Explanation: Troisier sign is enlargement of the left supraclavicular, or Virchow, node, classically suggesting metastatic abdominal malignancy such as…

Correct answer: Left supraclavicular nodes
  • A. Reed-sternberg cells
  • B. Plasma cells
  • C. Eosinophilis
  • D. Giant cells

Explanation: The characteristic neoplastic cells in Hodgkin lymphoma are Reed-Sternberg cells, typically large binucleate cells with prominent…

Correct answer: Reed-sternberg cells
  • A. Increased liver glycogenolysis
  • B. Causes broachiolar constriction
  • C. Evokes extrasystoles in the heart
  • D. Produces restlessness and anxiety

Explanation: High-dose intravenous epinephrine causes bronchodilation through β2-receptor stimulation, not bronchoconstriction.

Correct answer: Causes broachiolar constriction
  • A. Penicillinase
  • B. Pryosulphate
  • C. Protamine sulphate
  • D. Potassium sulphate

Explanation: Protamine sulphate is a strongly basic protein that binds acidic heparin and neutralises its anticoagulant effect.

Correct answer: Protamine sulphate
  • A. Testosterone
  • B. Parathyroid
  • C. Insulin
  • D. Thyroid

Explanation: Excess thyroid hormone increases tissue responsiveness to catecholamines, partly by increasing β-adrenergic receptor effects.

Correct answer: Thyroid
  • A. Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
  • B. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
  • C. Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
  • D. Causes tachycardia

Explanation: Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist that contracts the ciliary muscle and increases aqueous outflow, thereby lowering intraocular…

Correct answer: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
  • A. Atropine
  • B. Diazepam
  • C. Succinylcholine
  • D. Neostigmine

Explanation: Succinylcholine rapidly produces skeletal-muscle paralysis and is used to relax the laryngeal muscles during severe laryngospasm.

Correct answer: Succinylcholine
  • A. Corticosteroids
  • B. Antihistamines
  • C. Diazepam
  • D. Adrenalin

Explanation: Adrenaline is the first-line treatment for life-threatening anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction, vasodilation and…

Correct answer: Adrenalin
  • A. Antacids
  • B. Benzodiazepine
  • C. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol
  • D. Nsaid's like Ibuprofen

Explanation: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk with warfarin by impairing platelet function and damaging the gastric mucosa, in…

Correct answer: Nsaid's like Ibuprofen
  • A. Bronchial muscle relaxationConsult Online Doctors
  • B. Contraction of urinary spinctors
  • C. Vasoconstriction
  • D. Mydriasis

Explanation: Beta2 stimulation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing bronchodilation.

Correct answer: Bronchial muscle relaxationConsult Online Doctors
  • A. choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
  • B. Pancuronium, rocuronium
  • C. Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine
  • D. Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

Explanation: Pancuronium and rocuronium are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers that competitively inhibit nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular…

Correct answer: Pancuronium, rocuronium
  • A. D-tubocurarine
  • B. Gallamine triethiodide
  • C. Succinylcholine
  • D. Pancuronium bromide

Explanation: D-tubocurarine, gallamine and pancuronium are non-depolarizing blockers, whereas succinylcholine first depolarizes the motor end plate and…

Correct answer: Succinylcholine