All Free Pathology MCQs with Answers
Every Pathology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
289 questions · page 13 of 15
- A. Skin and mucosa
- B. Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa
- C. Skin, lips and tongue
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma arises from basal cells of the epidermis and is also found in pilosebaceous units, especially on sun-exposed skin.
Correct answer: Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa- A. Achalasia
- B. Cacoguesia
- C. Atelexis
- D. Cacchexia
Explanation: Cancer cachexia is the wasting syndrome caused by reduced intake, altered metabolism and inflammatory cytokines such as TNF.
Correct answer: Cacchexia- A. All of the above
- B. EBV
- C. Hepatitis -B virus
- D. HPV
Explanation: HPV, EBV and hepatitis B virus are all human oncogenic viruses associated with cancers such as cervical or anogenital carcinoma…
Correct answer: All of the above- A. Lung
- B. Breast
- C. Cervix
- D. Ovary
Explanation: Breast carcinoma is generally the most frequently diagnosed malignant tumour in women worldwide.
Correct answer: Breast- A. T- cell
- B. Lymph vessels
- C. B - cell
- D. Lymph nodes
Explanation: Burkitt lymphoma is a highly aggressive mature B-cell neoplasm caused by deregulation of MYC, usually through a t(8;14) translocation.
Correct answer: B - cell- A. Haemorrhage
- B. Increased mitoses
- C. Necrosis
- D. Metastasis
Explanation: Metastasis is the most definitive evidence of malignancy because it proves that tumour cells can invade and establish growth at distant…
Correct answer: Metastasis- A. Mass screening of cervical cancer
- B. Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity
- C. Cigarette smokers
- D. Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity
Explanation: Exfoliative cytology is particularly useful for mass screening of cervical cancer because abnormal epithelial cells can be collected from…
Correct answer: Mass screening of cervical cancer- A. Disorganized cell structure
- B. Invasion of blood vessels
- C. Encapulation
- D. Rapid, erratic growth
Explanation: Malignant tumours typically show disorganized growth, rapid erratic proliferation and invasion, including vascular invasion.
Correct answer: Encapulation- A. Right axillary nodes
- B. Left axillary nodes
- C. Right supraclavicular nodes
- D. Left supraclavicular nodes
Explanation: Troisier sign is enlargement of the left supraclavicular, or Virchow, node, classically suggesting metastatic abdominal malignancy such as…
Correct answer: Left supraclavicular nodes- A. Reed-sternberg cells
- B. Plasma cells
- C. Eosinophilis
- D. Giant cells
Explanation: The characteristic neoplastic cells in Hodgkin lymphoma are Reed-Sternberg cells, typically large binucleate cells with prominent…
Correct answer: Reed-sternberg cells- A. Increased liver glycogenolysis
- B. Causes broachiolar constriction
- C. Evokes extrasystoles in the heart
- D. Produces restlessness and anxiety
Explanation: High-dose intravenous epinephrine causes bronchodilation through β2-receptor stimulation, not bronchoconstriction.
Correct answer: Causes broachiolar constriction- A. Penicillinase
- B. Pryosulphate
- C. Protamine sulphate
- D. Potassium sulphate
Explanation: Protamine sulphate is a strongly basic protein that binds acidic heparin and neutralises its anticoagulant effect.
Correct answer: Protamine sulphate- A. Testosterone
- B. Parathyroid
- C. Insulin
- D. Thyroid
Explanation: Excess thyroid hormone increases tissue responsiveness to catecholamines, partly by increasing β-adrenergic receptor effects.
Correct answer: Thyroid- A. Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
- B. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
- C. Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
- D. Causes tachycardia
Explanation: Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist that contracts the ciliary muscle and increases aqueous outflow, thereby lowering intraocular…
Correct answer: Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma- A. Atropine
- B. Diazepam
- C. Succinylcholine
- D. Neostigmine
Explanation: Succinylcholine rapidly produces skeletal-muscle paralysis and is used to relax the laryngeal muscles during severe laryngospasm.
Correct answer: Succinylcholine- A. Corticosteroids
- B. Antihistamines
- C. Diazepam
- D. Adrenalin
Explanation: Adrenaline is the first-line treatment for life-threatening anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction, vasodilation and…
Correct answer: Adrenalin- A. Antacids
- B. Benzodiazepine
- C. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol
- D. Nsaid's like Ibuprofen
Explanation: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk with warfarin by impairing platelet function and damaging the gastric mucosa, in…
Correct answer: Nsaid's like Ibuprofen- A. Bronchial muscle relaxationConsult Online Doctors
- B. Contraction of urinary spinctors
- C. Vasoconstriction
- D. Mydriasis
Explanation: Beta2 stimulation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing bronchodilation.
Correct answer: Bronchial muscle relaxationConsult Online Doctors- A. choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
- B. Pancuronium, rocuronium
- C. Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine
- D. Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline
Explanation: Pancuronium and rocuronium are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers that competitively inhibit nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular…
Correct answer: Pancuronium, rocuronium260. All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_______________?
- A. D-tubocurarine
- B. Gallamine triethiodide
- C. Succinylcholine
- D. Pancuronium bromide
Explanation: D-tubocurarine, gallamine and pancuronium are non-depolarizing blockers, whereas succinylcholine first depolarizes the motor end plate and…
Correct answer: Succinylcholine