All Free Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs with Answers

• A. It is falsely lower than the true pressure
• B. It is falsely higher than the true pressure
• C. It causes an inaccurate pulse pressure only
• D. It has no meaningful effect on the reading

Explanation: A cuff that is too small requires greater pressure to compress the artery, producing a falsely high blood pressure reading.

• A. Serum alanine aminotransferase level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
• D. White blood cell count

Explanation: Atorvastatin can cause liver injury, so liver enzymes such as alanine aminotransferase are monitored when clinically indicated.

• A. Ventricular septal rupture
• B. Uncomplicated sinus bradycardia
• C. Stable coronary artery spasm
• D. Chronic peripheral oedema

Explanation: A new harsh systolic murmur with sudden heart failure after myocardial infarction suggests ventricular septal rupture.

• A. Use salt substitutes freely with meals
• B. Report muscle weakness or irregular heartbeat
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods every day
• D. Take an extra dose after missed urination

Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so hyperkalaemia may cause weakness or dysrhythmias.

• A. Obtain prescribed blood cultures before antibiotics
• B. Encourage vigorous ambulation to lower fever
• C. Give aspirin and reassess the murmur later
• D. Restrict all fluids until the fever resolves

Explanation: Fever, chills and a new murmur in a patient with a prosthetic valve suggest infective endocarditis.

• A. Sinus bradycardia
• B. Complete heart block
• C. Atrial fibrillation
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Explanation: A slow but regular rhythm with one consistent P wave before every QRS complex is sinus bradycardia.

• A. Respiratory rate and level of consciousness
• B. Bowel sounds and abdominal tenderness
• C. Skin turgor and oral temperature
• D. Visual acuity and pupil colour

Explanation: Morphine can depress respirations and consciousness, so airway and breathing assessment takes priority.

• A. A wide pulse pressure
• B. A fixed split second heart sound
• C. A slow, weak peripheral pulse
• D. A loud opening snap after S2

Explanation: Aortic regurgitation allows blood to flow back into the left ventricle during diastole, producing a widened pulse pressure.

• A. Rise slowly and sit at the bedside first
• B. Stop the medicine whenever dizziness occurs
• C. Take the medicine only when the pulse is rapid
• D. Drink extra fluids before every dose

Explanation: Carvedilol can lower blood pressure and contribute to orthostatic dizziness.

• A. Synchronized cardioversion
• B. Routine oral antihypertensive therapy
• C. Unsupervised carotid massage
• D. Delayed treatment after a meal

Explanation: The patient is unstable because the tachycardia is accompanied by hypotension and chest discomfort.

• A. Chewable aspirin
• B. Oral warfarin
• C. Intramuscular vitamin K
• D. Slow-release nifedipine

Explanation: Chewable aspirin reduces platelet aggregation and helps limit coronary thrombus formation during suspected acute coronary syndrome.

• A. Holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla
• B. Harsh ejection murmur radiating to the neck
• C. Mid-diastolic murmur with opening snap
• D. Continuous machinery murmur below the clavicle

Explanation: Mitral regurgitation commonly produces a holosystolic murmur that radiates toward the left axilla because blood flows back into the left…

• A. Complete heart block
• B. First-degree heart block
• C. Sinus bradycardia
• D. Atrial fibrillation

Explanation: Complete heart block causes atrioventricular dissociation, so the atria and ventricles beat independently.

• A. Sitting upright and leaning forward
• B. Lying flat with legs elevated
• C. Right lateral position with knees flexed
• D. Trendelenburg position with the head low

Explanation: Sitting upright and leaning forward often decreases the inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing against each other and may relieve pain.

• A. It supports ventricular strain and heart failure
• B. It confirms an acute bacterial endocarditis
• C. It indicates severe liver failure
• D. It proves the patient has pulmonary embolism

Explanation: B-type natriuretic peptide is released when the ventricles are stretched, so an increased level supports ventricular strain and heart…

• A. Synchronized electrical cardioversion
• B. Routine oral potassium replacement
• C. Unscheduled exercise testing
• D. Slow infusion of oral digoxin only

Explanation: Hypotension and chest pain indicate haemodynamic instability, so synchronized cardioversion is the priority treatment for unstable atrial…

• A. Serum potassium 2.9 mmol/L
• B. Serum sodium 140 mmol/L
• C. Serum calcium 2.3 mmol/L
• D. Serum chloride 102 mmol/L

Explanation: Hydrochlorothiazide can increase urinary potassium loss, and hypokalaemia can cause weakness, cramps and dysrhythmias.

• A. Plan rest periods between activities
• B. Avoid all physical activity permanently
• C. Take extra doses of medicine before exertion
• D. Complete strenuous tasks immediately after meals

Explanation: Planned rest periods reduce oxygen demand and help prevent fatigue and exertional chest discomfort.

• A. Cardiac tamponade
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Chronic venous insufficiency
• D. Stable exertional angina

Explanation: Hypotension, jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds are classic features of cardiac tamponade caused by pressure from fluid…

• A. Ankle oedema
• B. Severe hypoglycaemia
• C. Green-yellow visual halos
• D. Persistent dry cough

Explanation: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral ankle oedema from arteriolar vasodilation.