All Free Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs with Answers
Every Medical Surgical Nursing question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
600 questions · page 4 of 30
- A. Administer the prescribed lisinopril dose
- B. Report the potassium result promptly
- C. Encourage the patient to eat bananas
- D. Restrict the patient's oral fluid intake
Explanation: A potassium level of 5.8 mmol/L with weakness suggests clinically significant hyperkalaemia, which can cause dangerous dysrhythmias.
Correct answer: Report the potassium result promptly- A. Place the patient in a high-Fowler position
- B. Offer oral fluids to loosen secretions
- C. Place the patient flat with the legs elevated
- D. Encourage coughing while lying supine
Explanation: These findings indicate acute pulmonary oedema from left ventricular failure.
Correct answer: Place the patient in a high-Fowler position- A. Crackles at both lung bases
- B. Pink frothy sputum
- C. Distended neck veins
- D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion, producing jugular venous distension, dependent oedema and hepatomegaly.
Correct answer: Distended neck veins- A. Irregularly irregular rhythm without P waves
- B. Sawtooth flutter waves between QRS complexes
- C. Progressively longer PR intervals before a dropped beat
- D. Wide QRS complexes occurring without preceding P waves
Explanation: Atrial flutter produces rapid, regular atrial activity that appears as sawtooth flutter waves, often with a regular or variably conducted…
Correct answer: Sawtooth flutter waves between QRS complexes- A. Reduced cerebral and coronary perfusion
- B. Increased pulmonary surfactant production
- C. Excessive venous return to the heart
- D. Improved ventricular relaxation during exertion
Explanation: A narrowed aortic valve obstructs left ventricular outflow and limits cardiac output, especially during exertion.
Correct answer: Reduced cerebral and coronary perfusion- A. Reassure the patient that this is expected
- B. Report the symptoms promptly to the prescriber
- C. Advise the patient to double the next dose
- D. Encourage strenuous exercise to improve tolerance
Explanation: New cough and dyspnoea may indicate amiodarone-induced pulmonary toxicity, which can become serious.
Correct answer: Report the symptoms promptly to the prescriber- A. Blood pressure of 86/ fifty-four mmHg
- B. Mild fatigue after bathing
- C. Heart rate of 78 beats per minute
- D. Warm hands after a blanket is applied
Explanation: A blood pressure of 86/54 mmHg with confusion, cool skin and a weak pulse suggests inadequate tissue perfusion and possible cardiogenic…
Correct answer: Blood pressure of 86/ fifty-four mmHg- A. Serum potassium of 2.9 mmol/L
- B. Serum sodium of 140 mmol/L
- C. Serum calcium of 2.3 mmol/L
- D. Serum chloride of 102 mmol/L
Explanation: Furosemide increases urinary potassium loss, and hypokalaemia can cause muscle cramps and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Correct answer: Serum potassium of 2.9 mmol/L- A. The atrial impulses are not reaching the ventricles
- B. The PR interval is prolonged but every beat conducts
- C. The ventricles are depolarising before the atria
- D. The atrial rhythm is chaotic and irregular
Explanation: First-degree AV block is defined by a prolonged PR interval, usually more than 0.20 seconds, with every P wave followed by a QRS complex.
Correct answer: The PR interval is prolonged but every beat conducts- A. Stop prescribed medicines when symptoms improve
- B. Plan activity with rest periods and avoid heavy exertion
- C. Exercise vigorously immediately after large meals
- D. Use extra salt to maintain circulating volume
Explanation: Pacing activity with planned rest reduces myocardial oxygen demand and helps prevent exertional ischaemia.
Correct answer: Plan activity with rest periods and avoid heavy exertion- A. Ask the patient to walk slowly in the corridor
- B. Instruct the patient to take the next prescribed dose
- C. Notify the emergency response team and provider
- D. Offer oral fluids and reassess after 30 minutes
Explanation: Chest pain that persists after the first nitroglycerin dose may indicate myocardial infarction and requires urgent assessment.
Correct answer: Notify the emergency response team and provider- A. An early wide QRS complex without a preceding P wave
- B. A delayed narrow QRS complex after every normal beat
- C. A prolonged PR interval before each normal QRS complex
- D. A regular saw-toothed baseline between each QRS complex
Explanation: A premature ventricular contraction arises in the ventricle, producing an early, wide and abnormal QRS complex that is usually not…
Correct answer: An early wide QRS complex without a preceding P wave- A. I will weigh myself once a week after breakfast
- B. I will weigh myself daily after urinating
- C. I will check my weight whenever my ankles swell
- D. I will compare my weight before each evening meal
Explanation: Daily weighing under similar conditions, preferably after urination and before breakfast, helps detect fluid retention early.
Correct answer: I will weigh myself daily after urinating- A. It suggests acute myocardial injury in a specific region
- B. It confirms a harmless variation in ventricular recovery
- C. It indicates delayed conduction through the atrioventricular node
- D. It demonstrates chronic enlargement of the left atrium
Explanation: ST-segment elevation in contiguous leads supports acute myocardial injury affecting the area supplied by related coronary vessels.
Correct answer: It suggests acute myocardial injury in a specific region- A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute with dizziness
- B. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute without distress
- C. Blood pressure of 138/82 mmHg with warm skin
- D. Apical pulse of 76 beats per minute with mild fatigue
Explanation: Metoprolol slows the heart rate and can worsen symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct answer: Heart rate of 52 beats per minute with dizziness- A. International normalised ratio
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
- C. Serum creatinine concentration
- D. Platelet aggregation time
Explanation: The activated partial thromboplastin time is commonly used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy and guide dose adjustment.
Correct answer: Activated partial thromboplastin time- A. Administer it slowly through a small peripheral vein
- B. Give it as a rapid intravenous bolus followed by a flush
- C. Mix it with dextrose and infuse it over 30 minutes
- D. Ask the patient to take it orally with a full glass of water
Explanation: Adenosine has an extremely short half-life, so it is administered rapidly through an intravenous line followed immediately by a flush.
Correct answer: Give it as a rapid intravenous bolus followed by a flush- A. Atrial fibrillation with reduced cardiac output
- B. Complete heart block with fixed ventricular rhythm
- C. Acute aortic regurgitation with bounding pulses
- D. Ventricular fibrillation with immediate cardiac arrest
Explanation: Mitral stenosis enlarges the left atrium and increases the risk of atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: Atrial fibrillation with reduced cardiac output- A. Flat supine with the legs elevated
- B. High Fowler position with the legs dependent
- C. Prone position with the head turned sideways
- D. Left lateral position with the knees flexed
Explanation: High Fowler position improves lung expansion, while dependent legs reduce venous return to the heart and may lessen pulmonary congestion.
Correct answer: High Fowler position with the legs dependent- A. Administer the next dose with food
- B. Assess the patient and notify the provider promptly
- C. Encourage vigorous tooth brushing to remove blood
- D. Give aspirin to reduce the risk of embolism
Explanation: Gum bleeding and melena suggest clinically important anticoagulant-related bleeding and require prompt assessment, including vital signs…
Correct answer: Assess the patient and notify the provider promptly