All Free Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs with Answers
Every Medical Surgical Nursing question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
600 questions · page 13 of 30
- A. Snellen visual acuity test
- B. Ishihara colour vision test
- C. Amsler grid examination
- D. Confrontation field test
Explanation: The Ishihara test uses coloured plates to identify red-green colour vision deficiency.
Correct answer: Ishihara colour vision test- A. Share clean towels with family members
- B. Wash hands before and after touching the eyes
- C. Cover both eyes continuously during the day
- D. Stop cleaning discharge when redness improves
Explanation: Hand hygiene before and after eye care prevents transferring organisms to the other eye or another person.
Correct answer: Wash hands before and after touching the eyes- A. Arrange urgent ophthalmic assessment
- B. Apply a warm compress to the eyelid
- C. Encourage the patient to rest in a dark room
- D. Irrigate the eye with sterile saline
Explanation: Sudden painless monocular visual loss may indicate retinal artery occlusion or another sight-threatening disorder and requires urgent…
Correct answer: Arrange urgent ophthalmic assessment- A. The sound lateralises clearly to the left ear
- B. The sound lateralises clearly to the right ear
- C. The sound is heard equally in both ears
- D. The sound is heard only through bone conduction
Explanation: In a normal Weber test, the vibrating tuning fork is heard equally in both ears without lateralisation.
Correct answer: The sound is heard equally in both ears- A. Insert a cotton bud deeply into the canal
- B. Keep water out of the affected ear
- C. Flush the ear with tap water afterward
- D. Use an ear candle to dry the canal
Explanation: Keeping moisture out helps reduce irritation and supports healing in otitis externa.
Correct answer: Keep water out of the affected ear- A. Glaucoma commonly causes early loss of peripheral vision
- B. Glaucoma first causes complete loss of colour vision
- C. Glaucoma usually causes sudden central blindness
- D. Glaucoma initially produces severe ear pain
Explanation: Progressive optic nerve damage in glaucoma often affects peripheral vision before central vision.
Correct answer: Glaucoma commonly causes early loss of peripheral vision- A. Suggest increased oral fluids at home
- B. Report the findings promptly to the provider
- C. Teach the patient to blow the nose forcefully
- D. Apply a cold pack and reassess tomorrow
Explanation: Periorbital swelling with fever may indicate spread of infection beyond the sinuses and needs prompt medical review.
Correct answer: Report the findings promptly to the provider- A. Ask the patient to whisper until the voice returns
- B. Provide a writing board or picture communication aid
- C. Tell the patient to breathe through the mouth
- D. Place a speaking valve over the permanent stoma
Explanation: After total laryngectomy, airflow no longer passes through the larynx, so normal speech is absent initially.
Correct answer: Provide a writing board or picture communication aid- A. Gradual painless blurring of vision
- B. Sudden severe eye pain with vomiting
- C. Flashing lights followed by a curtain-like shadow
- D. Marked redness with purulent eye discharge
Explanation: A cataract is an opacity of the lens that commonly causes gradual, painless blurring and glare.
Correct answer: Gradual painless blurring of vision- A. Offer solid food to assess swallowing
- B. Place the patient flat and encourage sleep
- C. Assess the airway and notify the provider urgently
- D. Ask the patient to gargle with concentrated antiseptic
Explanation: Drooling and difficulty opening the mouth may signal a deep throat infection with risk of airway obstruction.
Correct answer: Assess the airway and notify the provider urgently- A. Place the patient flat and offer oral fluids
- B. Assess the airway, breathing and circulation
- C. Give an antacid and reassess after 30 minutes
- D. Apply a warm compress over the epigastric area
Explanation: Acute hematemesis can cause airway contamination and hypovolaemic shock, so ABC assessment has priority.
Correct answer: Assess the airway, breathing and circulation- A. Begin prescribed intravenous fluid replacement
- B. Offer a full meal with extra dietary fibre
- C. Administer an antidiarrhoeal medicine immediately
- D. Restrict fluids until the diarrhoea settles
Explanation: The findings indicate severe dehydration with circulatory compromise, so rapid prescribed intravenous fluid replacement is the priority.
Correct answer: Begin prescribed intravenous fluid replacement- A. Continuous inflammation beginning at the rectum
- B. Transmural inflammation with skip lesions
- C. Inflammation limited to the colonic mucosa
- D. Frequent bloody diarrhoea with urgency
Explanation: Crohn disease may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and commonly causes patchy skip lesions with transmural inflammation.
Correct answer: Transmural inflammation with skip lesions- A. Give an oral laxative to stimulate peristalsis
- B. Keep the patient nil by mouth and prepare gastric decompression
- C. Encourage a high-fibre meal and increased oral fluids
- D. Apply a heating pad and massage the abdomen
Explanation: Keeping the patient nil by mouth and preparing prescribed nasogastric decompression reduces further distension and vomiting while the…
Correct answer: Keep the patient nil by mouth and prepare gastric decompression- A. Avoid sharing razors because blood spreads the infection
- B. Use gloves only when administering intravenous medicines
- C. Wash hands carefully after using the toilet and before preparing food
- D. Avoid all contact with household members for six months
Explanation: Hepatitis A mainly spreads by the faecal-oral route, so careful hand hygiene is essential after toileting and before food handling.
Correct answer: Wash hands carefully after using the toilet and before preparing food- A. A potassium level of 5.8 mmol/L
- B. A sodium level of 137 mmol/L
- C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. A urine output of 1,200 mL in 24 hours
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a potassium level of 5.8 mmol/L indicates clinically important hyperkalaemia and…
Correct answer: A potassium level of 5.8 mmol/L- A. Give oral water to clear the taste of blood
- B. Position the patient safely and assess the airway
- C. Insert a rectal thermometer to assess perfusion
- D. Encourage ambulation to prevent venous stasis
Explanation: Massive bleeding from oesophageal varices can obstruct the airway and rapidly cause shock, so safe positioning and immediate airway…
Correct answer: Position the patient safely and assess the airway- A. Check capillary blood glucose and oxygen saturation
- B. Ask the patient to eat a high-protein meal
- C. Encourage walking to improve alertness
- D. Give a sedative to control the confusion
Explanation: Hypoglycaemia and hypoxaemia can also cause altered consciousness and must be identified promptly because they threaten basic…
Correct answer: Check capillary blood glucose and oxygen saturation- A. I should stop it whenever my stools become soft
- B. I should expect several soft stools each day
- C. I should restrict all fluids while taking this medicine
- D. I should take extra sedatives if confusion returns
Explanation: Lactulose lowers intestinal ammonia absorption and is adjusted to produce several soft stools daily, not severe diarrhoea.
Correct answer: I should expect several soft stools each day- A. Hypercalcaemia caused by fluid loss
- B. Hypokalaemia caused by gastrointestinal losses
- C. Hypermagnesaemia caused by poor absorption
- D. Hypernatraemia caused by excessive potassium loss
Explanation: Diarrhoea commonly causes potassium loss, producing weakness, muscle cramps and ECG changes such as flattened T waves.
Correct answer: Hypokalaemia caused by gastrointestinal losses