Free Odontogenic Cysts and Tumours MCQs with Answers

• A. Deciduous maxillary anteriors
• B. Permanent maxillary anteriors
• C. Deciduous mandibular anteriors
• D. Permanent manibular anteriors

Explanation: Turner's hypoplasia usually affects a permanent tooth whose predecessor was injured by trauma or infection, most often a maxillary…

• A. Mandibular premolar
• B. Mandibular canine
• C. Mandibular third molar
• D. Maxillary central incisor

Explanation: Regional odontodysplasia most often involves the maxillary anterior region, especially the maxillary central incisor.

• A. A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation
• B. Denticle formation within the pulp tissue
• C. An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue
• D. A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth

Explanation: Dens invaginatus results from an inward folding of the enamel organ into the developing tooth, creating an enamel-lined invagination.

• A. Mand. Primary 1st moral
• B. Mand. Primary 2nd moral
• C. Maxi. Primary 1st moral
• D. Maxi. Primary 2nd moral

Explanation: Submergence or infraocclusion most commonly affects the mandibular primary second molar.

• A. Retrusive maxilla
• B. Retrusive Mandible
• C. Enamel hypoplasia
• D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Explanation: Generalized failure to thrive during the first six months can interrupt ameloblast activity while the primary teeth are forming, producing…

• A. Maxillary canine
• B. Maxillary first molar
• C. Mandibular second premolar
• D. Mandibular first molar

Explanation: After excluding third molars, the mandibular second premolar is commonly the most frequently congenitally missing permanent tooth.

• A. A hereditary disturbance
• B. The result of excessive fluoride ingestion
• C. The result of faulty enamel matrix formation
• D. Characterized by calcification of pulp chambers and the root canals of the teeth

Explanation: Dentinogenesis imperfecta may show obliteration or marked narrowing of the pulp chambers and root canals because abnormal dentin continues…

• A. Dens is dent
• B. Regional odontodysplasia
• C. Dentin dysplasia
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Ghost teeth are the characteristic radiographic finding of regional odontodysplasia, in which enamel and dentin are thin and poorly…

• A. Division of a single tooth bud after calcification
• B. Fusion of two teeth before calcification
• C. Division of a single tooth bud before calcification
• D. Fusion of two teeth after calcification

Explanation: Gemination is an attempted division of one tooth bud, usually occurring before calcification is complete, and typically produces a bifid…

• A. Natal teeth
• B. Prenatal teeth
• C. Primary teeth
• D. Neonatal teeth

Explanation: A tooth present at birth is a natal tooth, whereas one erupting during the first 30 days of life is a neonatal tooth.

• A. Often present between incisor and cuspid teeth but is a bone cyst
• B. Soft tissue cyst present often between maxillary Lateral incisor and cuspid teeth
• C. A cyst present between the midline of the palate
• D. A cyst present in the incisive canal

Explanation: The globulomaxillary cyst is traditionally described as an intraosseous cyst-like lesion between the maxillary lateral incisor and canine.

• A. Fusion
• B. Concrescence
• C. Gemination
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Concrescence is the union of adjacent teeth by cementum alone, usually after root formation.

• A. Fibrous dysplasia
• B. Osteitis deformans
• C. Hyperparathyroidism
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Explanation: A brown tumour of hyperparathyroidism can closely resemble a central giant cell granuloma clinically and microscopically, so serum…

• A. Maxilla affected more than the mandible
• B. Affects people in 3-4 decade of life
• C. Circumscribed radio opacity
• D. Continuous growth

Explanation: Ossifying fibroma is usually a well-circumscribed lesion in the third or fourth decade and may enlarge progressively, but it more often…

• A. Warthin's tumor
• B. Ameloblastoma
• C. Keratocanthoma
• D. Neurofibroma

Explanation: Ameloblastoma is histologically benign but can rarely metastasize, most often to the lungs; this is termed metastasizing or malignant…

• A. Dentigerous cyst
• B. Mural ameloblastoma
• C. All of the above
• D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Explanation: Dentigerous cysts characteristically envelop the crown of an unerupted tooth, while adenomatoid odontogenic tumours and mural…

• A. Unilocular radiolucency
• B. Both A & B
• C. Multilocular radiolucency
• D. Multiocular radio opacity
• E. Unilocular radio opacity

Explanation: Ossifying fibroma changes with maturation: early lesions are usually well-defined unilocular radiolucencies, while mature lesions may…

• A. Simple bone cyst
• B. Giant cell tumour
• C. Fibrous cortical defect
• D. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Explanation: A simple bone cyst is typically a centrally located radiolucency that scallops between roots, rather than an eccentric osteolytic lesion.

• A. Neoplastic
• B. Non-neoplastic
• C. Afflicted by trauma
• D. Hormonal distubance

Explanation: A hamartoma is a developmental, non-neoplastic overgrowth of mature tissues normally found at that site.

• A. fibrous dysplasia
• B. osteosarcoma
• C. Ewing's sarcoma
• D. Chondrosarcoma

Explanation: Ewing sarcoma commonly causes an onion-skin or lamellated periosteal reaction due to successive layers of reactive bone formation.