All Free Nursing Pharmacology MCQs with Answers

Every Nursing Pharmacology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

450 questions · page 8 of 23

  • A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase
  • B. Directly dissolves an established blood clot
  • C. Replaces clotting factors consumed during bleeding
  • D. Prevents fibrin breakdown in a damaged vessel

Explanation: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase, reducing thromboxane A2 and platelet aggregation for the life of the platelet.

Correct answer: Irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase
Fairly easy
  • A. Rebound hypertension and severe headache
  • B. Gradual hypoglycaemia and sweating
  • C. Permanent hearing loss and tinnitus
  • D. Immediate fluid loss and dehydration

Explanation: Abrupt withdrawal of clonidine can cause sympathetic overactivity, producing rebound hypertension, headache and agitation.

Correct answer: Rebound hypertension and severe headache
Fairly easy
  • A. Slows conduction through the atrioventricular node
  • B. Increases conduction through the atrioventricular node
  • C. Stimulates the kidneys to excrete uric acid
  • D. Increases platelet production in bone marrow

Explanation: Diltiazem is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that slows atrioventricular nodal conduction and can reduce the ventricular…

Correct answer: Slows conduction through the atrioventricular node
Fairly easy
  • A. I use it regularly, not for sudden severe breathlessness
  • B. I use it only after an acute attack has already started
  • C. I stop it whenever my breathing feels normal for one day
  • D. I swallow the capsule so the medicine works throughout my body

Explanation: Tiotropium is a long-acting inhaled anticholinergic used for maintenance control and is not a rapid rescue medicine.

Correct answer: I use it regularly, not for sudden severe breathlessness
Moderate
  • A. Report the symptoms for prompt assessment
  • B. Tell the patient to double the next dose
  • C. Advise stopping prednisone immediately
  • D. Reassure the patient that infection is impossible

Explanation: Long-term corticosteroids suppress immune responses and may increase infection risk while masking typical signs.

Correct answer: Report the symptoms for prompt assessment
  • A. It breaks down mucus and makes secretions easier to clear
  • B. It suppresses the cough reflex and dries respiratory secretions
  • C. It relaxes bronchial smooth muscle for immediate relief
  • D. It reduces airway inflammation by replacing corticosteroids

Explanation: Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic that breaks disulfide bonds in mucus, reducing its viscosity and helping the patient expectorate.

Correct answer: It breaks down mucus and makes secretions easier to clear
Moderate
  • A. It reduces airway inflammation but is not a rapid rescue bronchodilator
  • B. It works by increasing mucus thickness during an attack
  • C. It prevents oxygen from entering the alveoli during wheezing
  • D. It acts only by lowering the patient's blood pressure

Explanation: Corticosteroids reduce airway inflammation and help control exacerbations, but they do not rapidly relax bronchial smooth muscle.

Correct answer: It reduces airway inflammation but is not a rapid rescue bronchodilator
  • A. Accumulation of bradykinin in the airways
  • B. Excess fluid in the pulmonary alveoli
  • C. Reduced potassium in the bloodstream
  • D. Increased mucus production in the bronchi

Explanation: ACE inhibitors such as enalapril can cause a persistent dry cough by reducing bradykinin breakdown.

Correct answer: Accumulation of bradykinin in the airways
Easy
  • A. It is a common peripheral vasodilator effect
  • B. It shows severe kidney failure from the drug
  • C. It indicates an immediate allergic reaction
  • D. It results from dangerously low blood glucose

Explanation: Amlodipine relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle and may cause peripheral ankle oedema because of increased capillary fluid movement.

Correct answer: It is a common peripheral vasodilator effect
  • A. It directly inhibits factor Xa
  • B. It activates antithrombin to inhibit thrombin
  • C. It blocks platelet cyclooxygenase
  • D. It prevents vitamin K absorption

Explanation: Apixaban directly inhibits factor Xa, reducing thrombin generation and clot formation.

Correct answer: It directly inhibits factor Xa
  • A. 1 tablet
  • B. 2 tablets
  • C. 3 tablets
  • D. 4 tablets

Explanation: Use the formula: prescribed dose divided by dose per tablet. 500 mg ÷ 250 mg = 2 tablets.

Correct answer: 2 tablets
  • A. 10 mL
  • B. 12 mL
  • C. 15 mL
  • D. 20 mL

Explanation: First calculate the volume per milligram: 375 mg × 5 mL ÷ 125 mg = 15 mL.

Correct answer: 15 mL
  • A. 75 mg
  • B. 250 mg
  • C. 750 mg
  • D. 7,500 mg

Explanation: One gram equals 1,000 milligrams. Therefore, 0.75 g × 1,000 = 750 mg. The decimal must be moved three places to the right when converting…

Correct answer: 750 mg
  • A. 5.5 mL
  • B. 7.5 mL
  • C. 10 mL
  • D. 15 mL

Explanation: Calculate the dose first: 15 kg × 10 mg/kg = 150 mg. Then calculate the volume: 150 mg × 5 mL ÷ 100 mg = 7.5 mL.

Correct answer: 7.5 mL
  • A. 24 drops/min
  • B. 31 drops/min
  • C. 38 drops/min
  • D. 45 drops/min

Explanation: Use: volume × drop factor ÷ time in minutes. 1,000 × 15 ÷ 480 minutes = 31.25 drops/minute, which is rounded to 31 drops/minute.

Correct answer: 31 drops/min
  • A. 100 mL/hour
  • B. 125 mL/hour
  • C. 150 mL/hour
  • D. 200 mL/hour

Explanation: Use the formula: total volume divided by infusion time. 500 mL ÷ 4 hours = 125 mL/hour.

Correct answer: 125 mL/hour
Fairly easy
  • A. 2 mg/mL
  • B. 10 mg/mL
  • C. 20 mg/mL
  • D. 200 mg/mL

Explanation: A 2% w/v solution contains 2 g in 100 mL. Converting 2 g to 2,000 mg and dividing by 100 mL gives 20 mg/mL.

Correct answer: 20 mg/mL
Moderate
  • A. 0.5 mg
  • B. 5 mg
  • C. 50 mg
  • D. 500 mg

Explanation: One gram equals 1,000 mg, so 1 g in 1,000 mL equals 1 mg/mL. In 5 mL, the amount is 5 mL × 1 mg/mL = 5 mg.

Correct answer: 5 mg
Easy
  • A. 0.25 mL
  • B. 0.5 mL
  • C. 1 mL
  • D. 2 mL

Explanation: Use: prescribed dose divided by concentration. 0.25 mg ÷ 0.5 mg/mL = 0.5 mL.

Correct answer: 0.5 mL
  • A. 2 hours
  • B. 4 hours
  • C. 5 hours
  • D. 10 hours

Explanation: Use: total volume divided by infusion rate. 250 mL ÷ 50 mL/hour = 5 hours.

Correct answer: 5 hours