Free Antenatal Care MCQs with Answers

• A. Between 8 and 12 weeks
• B. Between 16 and 20 weeks
• C. Between 24 and 28 weeks
• D. Between 32 and 36 weeks

Explanation: Screening is commonly performed at 24 to 28 weeks, when insulin resistance increases and gestational diabetes is more likely to appear.

• A. HIV and syphilis screening
• B. Routine sputum culture
• C. Daily stool examination
• D. Chest radiography for every woman

Explanation: HIV and syphilis screening allow early treatment and interventions that reduce maternal and fetal complications.

• A. Maternal weight at booking
• B. First trimester ultrasound
• C. Time of first fetal movement
• D. Fundal height near term

Explanation: First trimester ultrasound, especially measurement of the crown-rump length, provides the most reliable early dating.

• A. 80 beats per minute
• B. 105 beats per minute
• C. 140 beats per minute
• D. 175 beats per minute

Explanation: A baseline fetal heart rate of about 110 to 160 beats per minute is generally considered normal.

• A. Breast inspection
• B. Leopold manoeuvres
• C. Ankle reflex testing
• D. Visual acuity testing

Explanation: Leopold manoeuvres use systematic abdominal palpation to assess fetal lie, presentation, position and sometimes engagement.

• A. Place her in a left lateral position
• B. Ask her to walk around the room
• C. Give her a high dose of iron
• D. Place her in a sitting position only

Explanation: The enlarged uterus can compress the vena cava when the woman lies supine, reducing venous return and causing supine hypotension.

• A. Arrange diagnostic glucose testing
• B. Start insulin without assessment
• C. Advise complete bed rest
• D. Repeat the test after delivery

Explanation: A positive screening result requires diagnostic glucose testing according to the local protocol before treatment is planned.

• A. Estimate it from maternal height
• B. Arrange an obstetric ultrasound
• C. Use the date of quickening alone
• D. Assume the pregnancy is exactly 22 weeks

Explanation: When the menstrual history is uncertain, obstetric ultrasound can provide an objective estimate of gestational age and fetal development.

• A. Document it and arrange obstetric review
• B. Perform forceful abdominal pressure
• C. Tell the woman that vaginal birth is impossible
• D. Repeat the assessment after delivery

Explanation: A suspected breech presentation at 36 weeks should be documented and referred for confirmation and birth planning.

• A. Protect her from injury and maintain the airway
• B. Insert a vaginal examination glove immediately
• C. Give oral fluids during the convulsion
• D. Ask her to stand after the convulsion

Explanation: Airway and safety take priority during a convulsion, which may be caused by eclampsia.

• A. During the first trimester
• B. At the time of quickening
• C. After 28 weeks of pregnancy
• D. When labour pains begin

Explanation: Antenatal care should begin in the first trimester so health risks, gestational age and preventive needs can be assessed early.

• A. It prevents neural tube defects
• B. It prevents pregnancy-induced hypertension
• C. It increases fetal lung maturity
• D. It prevents Rh incompatibility

Explanation: Folic acid supports early neural tube development and reduces the risk of neural tube defects.

• A. Urine culture
• B. Chest radiograph
• C. Liver function test
• D. Stool microscopy

Explanation: Urine culture can detect bacteria in the urine even when the pregnant woman has no urinary symptoms.

• A. Refer her promptly for medical assessment
• B. Advise her to reduce oral fluid intake
• C. Reassure her that this is a normal change
• D. Schedule review at the next routine visit

Explanation: Fever, dysuria and loin pain suggest an upper urinary tract infection, which can become serious during pregnancy.

• A. A maternal blood test
• B. A fetal kick count
• C. A cervical measurement
• D. A urine glucose strip

Explanation: Syphilis screening is performed using a maternal blood test, allowing treatment to reduce maternal and congenital infection.

• A. She may need anti-D prophylaxis at recommended times
• B. She must receive antibiotics throughout pregnancy
• C. She cannot safely continue the pregnancy
• D. She needs insulin to prevent fetal anaemia

Explanation: An Rh-negative woman without antibodies may be offered anti-D immunoglobulin according to local protocol and after certain sensitising…

• A. Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy
• B. Limit alcohol to weekends only
• C. Use alcohol when nausea is severe
• D. Replace alcohol with extra caffeinated drinks

Explanation: No safe level of alcohol exposure in pregnancy has been established, so complete avoidance is advised.

• A. Assess her blood pressure and arrange urgent review
• B. Advise her to rest and return in one week
• C. Give an over-the-counter analgesic and discharge her
• D. Tell her that visual symptoms are normal in pregnancy

Explanation: Severe headache and visual disturbance may indicate severe hypertensive disease, so blood pressure assessment and urgent clinical review…

• A. A woman with a twin pregnancy
• B. A woman with mild morning nausea
• C. A woman with occasional painless fetal movement
• D. A woman with normal findings at 20 weeks

Explanation: Multiple pregnancy requires closer surveillance because the risks of preterm birth, anaemia and fetal growth problems are increased.

• A. Cook meat and eggs thoroughly
• B. Drink unpasteurised milk daily
• C. Eat raw sprouts with every meal
• D. Keep cooked food at room temperature

Explanation: Thorough cooking reduces exposure to organisms that may cause foodborne illness during pregnancy.