Free Financial Mathematics: Interest, Annuities and Discounting MCQs with Answers

30 Financial Mathematics: Interest, Annuities and Discounting MCQs from Quantitative Methods, each with the correct answer and a written explanation of why it is correct. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

Financial mathematics covers simple and compound interest, principal, rate, time, accumulated value and present value. It also includes annuities, regular payments, sinking funds, loan repayments and discounting, with a distinction between ordinary annuities and annuities due and between trade discount and mathematical discount.

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30 questions · page 1 of 2

  • A. Rs. 1,200
  • B. Rs. 1,000
  • C. Rs. 1,240
  • D. Rs. 1,400

Explanation: Simple interest is calculated as P × r × t. Thus, Rs. 5,000 × 0.08 × 3 equals Rs.

Correct answer: Rs. 1,200
  • A. Rs. 12,000
  • B. Rs. 12,100
  • C. Rs. 12,200
  • D. Rs. 12,210

Explanation: The amount is 10,000 × (1.10)², which equals Rs. 12,100. Rs. 12,000 results from applying simple interest instead of annual compounding.

Correct answer: Rs. 12,100
  • A. Rs. 40,500.00
  • B. Rs. 45,454.55
  • C. Rs. 45,000.00
  • D. Rs. 41,322.31

Explanation: Present value equals future value divided by (1 + r)ⁿ. Therefore, Rs. 50,000 ÷ (1.10)² equals approximately Rs. 41,322.31; Rs.

Correct answer: Rs. 41,322.31
  • A. Rs. 3,310
  • B. Rs. 3,100
  • C. Rs. 3,000
  • D. Rs. 3,641

Explanation: For an ordinary annuity, payments occur at the end of each period. The value is 1,000[(1.10)³ − 1] ÷ 0.10, giving Rs. 3,310; Rs.

Correct answer: Rs. 3,310
  • A. Rs. 2,700.00
  • B. Rs. 2,486.85
  • C. Rs. 2,735.54
  • D. Rs. 3,000.00

Explanation: The present value is 1,000[1 − (1.10)⁻³] ÷ 0.10, which is approximately Rs. 2,486.85.

Correct answer: Rs. 2,486.85
  • A. Rs. 96,000
  • B. Rs. 120,000
  • C. Rs. 150,000
  • D. Rs. 160,000

Explanation: The present value of a level perpetuity is annual payment divided by the discount rate. Thus, Rs. 12,000 ÷ 0.08 equals Rs.

Correct answer: Rs. 150,000
  • A. 12.00%
  • B. 12.36%
  • C. 12.68%
  • D. 13.20%

Explanation: The effective annual rate is (1 + 0.12/12)¹² − 1. This equals approximately 12.68%, which is higher than the nominal rate because interest…

Correct answer: 12.68%
  • A. A level ordinary annuity
  • B. A level annuity due
  • C. A perpetuity payment
  • D. A simple-interest payment

Explanation: The present value of three end-of-year payments of Rs. 4,021.15 at 10% is approximately Rs. 10,000.

Correct answer: A level ordinary annuity
  • A. Rs. 3,310
  • B. Rs. 3,410
  • C. Rs. 3,641
  • D. Rs. 3,900

Explanation: Beginning-of-year payments form an annuity due. Its value is the ordinary annuity value multiplied by 1.10, so Rs. 3,310 × 1.10 equals Rs.

Correct answer: Rs. 3,641
  • A. Rs. 9,200
  • B. Rs. 9,600
  • C. Rs. 9,425
  • D. Rs. 9,400

Explanation: Under simple bank discount, discount equals F × d × t. The discount is Rs. 10,000 × 0.08 × 9/12, or Rs. 600, so the proceeds are Rs. 9,400.

Correct answer: Rs. 9,400
  • A. Rs. 9,200
  • B. Rs. 9,000
  • C. Rs. 9,440
  • D. Rs. 10,000

Explanation: Simple interest equals PRT, so it is 8,000 × 0.06 × 2.5 = Rs. 1,200. Adding this interest to the principal gives a total amount of Rs.

Correct answer: Rs. 9,200
  • A. Rs. 10,800.00
  • B. Rs. 10,824.32
  • C. Rs. 10,864.00
  • D. Rs. 10,832.00

Explanation: The quarterly rate is 8% divided by 4, or 2%, and there are four compounding periods. Thus, the amount is 10,000(1.02)^4 = Rs. 10,824.32.

Correct answer: Rs. 10,824.32
  • A. Rs. 100.00
  • B. Rs. 152.50
  • C. Rs. 150.00
  • D. Rs. 162.50

Explanation: Simple interest is Rs. 3,000, while compound interest is 20,000[(1.05)^3 − 1] = Rs. 3,152.50.

Correct answer: Rs. 152.50
  • A. Rs. 2,486.85
  • B. Rs. 3,000.00
  • C. Rs. 2,735.54
  • D. Rs. 3,310.00

Explanation: The present value of an annuity due equals the present value of an ordinary annuity multiplied by 1.10.

Correct answer: Rs. 2,735.54
  • A. Rs. 1,867.43
  • B. Rs. 2,735.54
  • C. Rs. 2,486.85
  • D. Rs. 2,055.25

Explanation: The three payments first have a value of Rs. 2,486.85 at the end of year 2.

Correct answer: Rs. 2,055.25
  • A. Rs. 8,000.00
  • B. Rs. 8,528.14
  • C. Rs. 9,000.00
  • D. Rs. 10,000.00

Explanation: For a sinking fund, the annual deposit is FV × i divided by [(1+i)^n − 1].

Correct answer: Rs. 8,528.14
  • A. Rs. 500
  • B. Rs. 800
  • C. Rs. 1,000
  • D. Rs. 1,100

Explanation: Bank discount is calculated on the maturity value, using D = Mdt. Hence, D = 20,000 × 0.10 × 0.5 = Rs. 1,000.

Correct answer: Rs. 1,000
  • A. Rs. 10,500.00
  • B. Rs. 11,000.00
  • C. Rs. 11,300.00
  • D. Rs. 11,157.02

Explanation: Each cash flow is discounted to the present separately. The value is 5,000 divided by 1.10 plus 8,000 divided by 1.10^2, which equals…

Correct answer: Rs. 11,157.02
  • A. It decreases as principal falls
  • B. It remains exactly constant
  • C. It increases steadily
  • D. It becomes zero immediately

Explanation: Interest is calculated on the outstanding loan balance. As regular payments reduce the principal, the interest portion decreases and the…

Correct answer: It decreases as principal falls
  • A. Rs. 11,200.00
  • B. Rs. 11,274.97
  • C. Rs. 11,236.00
  • D. Rs. 11,360.00

Explanation: With continuous compounding, the amount is A = Pe^(rt). Thus, A = 10,000e^(0.06×2) = approximately Rs. 11,274.97.

Correct answer: Rs. 11,274.97

Financial Mathematics: Interest, Annuities and Discounting MCQs: common questions

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