All Free Oral Pathology and Medicine MCQs with Answers

• A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
• B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
• C. Pleomorphic adenoma
• D. Warthin's tumourExplore Anatomy Models

Explanation: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma contains mucous, epidermoid, and intermediate cells, with the mixture varying by tumour grade.

• A. Pleomorphic adenoma
• B. Warthin tumour
• C. Acinic cell tumour
• D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Explanation: Warthin tumour has cystic spaces lined by a characteristic double layer of oncocytic epithelial cells supported by lymphoid stroma.

• A. Dentigerous cyst
• B. Odontogenic deratocyst
• C. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
• D. Unicystic ameloblastoma

Explanation: Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, or Warthin tumour, contains cystic spaces that may hold thick brown or chocolate-coloured fluid.

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Potassium cloride
• C. Unknown compounds of phosphats
• D. Hydroxyapatitie

Explanation: Sialoliths are mainly mineralised calcium phosphate deposits, with hydroxyapatite among their principal crystalline components.

• A. Adeno carcinoma
• B. Warthin's tumour
• C. Adeno cystic lymphoma
• D. Pleomorphic adenoma

Explanation: Adenolymphoma is the older name for Warthin tumour, a benign salivary neoplasm containing epithelial tissue and a prominent lymphoid…

• A. Most common in submandibular gland
• B. Usually malignant
• C. Most common in parotid gland
• D. Associated with calculi

Explanation: The classic mixed tumour, pleomorphic adenoma, occurs most often in the parotid gland and is usually benign.

• A. Sublingual salivary gland
• B. Minor salivary glands
• C. Submandibular salivary gland
• D. Parotid salivary gland

Explanation: Acinic cell carcinoma has a strong predilection for the parotid gland, where it arises from cells showing serous acinar differentiation.

• A. Cholinergic drugs
• B. Anticholinergic drugs
• C. Andrenergic drugs
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Cholinergic stimulation activates parasympathetic secretomotor pathways and increases watery salivary flow.

• A. Partial or complete compression of the salivary acini
• B. Rupture of a salivary duct
• C. Inflammatory changes in the glandular interestitial tissue
• D. Partial or complete obstruction of teh salivary duct by calculus

Explanation: Most mucoceles are extravasation lesions caused by rupture of a minor salivary duct, allowing mucus to enter the surrounding connective…

• A. Actinomycosis
• B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
• C. Pleomorphic adenoma
• D. Squamous cell carcinoma

Explanation: Necrotizing sialometaplasia commonly presents as a rapidly developing, painful crater-like ulcer on the posterior hard palate and can…

• A. Lingual glands
• B. Parotid gland
• C. Sub lingual glands
• D. Submandibular gland

Explanation: Submandibular sialolithiasis is most common because the gland has a long, tortuous duct, an uphill drainage path, and relatively…

• A. Causalgia
• B. Neuralgia
• C. Neuritis
• D. Temporal arteritis

Explanation: Causalgia is severe, often burning pain that develops after injury to or partial sectioning of a peripheral sensory nerve.

• A. burning sensations in mouth
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Glossodynia
• D. excessive salivation

Explanation: Eagle syndrome results from an elongated styloid process or calcified stylohyoid ligament irritating nearby structures, commonly producing…

• A. valproic acid
• B. Diphen hydantoin
• C. carbamazepine
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Carbamazepine is the classic first-line drug for trigeminal neuralgia because it suppresses the abnormal ectopic firing of the affected…

• A. Swallowing
• B. chewing
• C. Protruding the tongue
• D. Whistling

Explanation: Whistling requires coordinated movement and tight closure of the lips, which are supplied by the muscles of facial expression through…

• A. Seventh cranial nerve
• B. sub mandibular gland
• C. Temporomandibular joint
• D. Glosso pharyngeal nerve

Explanation: Bell palsy is an acute lower motor neuron paralysis of the facial nerve, cranial nerve VII, causing weakness of the muscles on one side of…

• A. X
• B. IX
• C. VII
• D. II

Explanation: Geniculate neuralgia involves the geniculate ganglion and nervus intermedius, which is functionally associated with the facial nerve…

• A. it is unilateral
• B. occurs in bouts
• C. it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc
• D. it is of throbbing nature

Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia produces brief, recurrent, electric-shock-like or stabbing attacks, usually on one side, triggered by light touch or…

• A. Trigeminal neuralgia
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Sarcoidosis
• D. Lupus erythematosis

Explanation: Fothergill's disease is the classic name for trigeminal neuralgia, which causes brief, severe, electric-shock-like facial pain along one…

• A. Loss of taste sensation from Ant. 2/3 of tongue
• B. Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle
• C. Loss of innervation to stapedius
• D. Loss of lacrimal secretion

Explanation: At the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve has already given off the chorda tympani, nerve to stapedius, and greater petrosal nerve…