All Free Oral Pathology and Medicine MCQs with Answers
Every Oral Pathology and Medicine question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
833 questions · page 26 of 42
- A. Glandular involvement
- B. Febrile
- C. Palatine Petechiae
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis commonly causes fever, lymphoid or glandular enlargement, and palatal petechiae due to the systemic Epstein-Barr…
Correct answer: All of the above- A. All of the above
- B. agranulocytosis
- C. liver cirrhosis
- D. influenza
Explanation: Leucocytopenia may occur with influenza, agranulocytosis and advanced liver cirrhosis, often through marrow suppression or splenic…
Correct answer: All of the above- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Melanosis
- C. Petechiae
- D. Purpura
Explanation: Ecchymosis, petechiae and purpura are caused by blood escaping into tissues, whereas melanosis is melanin pigmentation and is not a…
Correct answer: Melanosis504. Which of the following agents is of value in the postoperative care of the hemophilic patient ?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Monsel's solution
- C. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
- D. Aminocaproic acid
Explanation: Aminocaproic acid inhibits fibrinolysis and helps preserve postoperative clots, making it useful after surgery in haemophilic patients.
Correct answer: Aminocaproic acid- A. Factor IX deficiency
- B. Factor VII deficiency
- C. Platelet deficiency
- D. it C deficiency
Explanation: Haemophilia B, or Christmas disease, results from deficiency of clotting factor IX. Haemophilia A is the related factor VIII deficiency.
Correct answer: Factor IX deficiency- A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
- B. Infection mononucleosis
- C. Primary syphilis
- D. Recurrent apthous stomatitis
Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is called the kissing disease because Epstein-Barr virus is commonly transmitted through saliva.
Correct answer: Infection mononucleosis- A. Folic acid deficiency
- B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
- C. Pernicious anaemia
- D. Paterson-Kelly syndrome
Explanation: Pernicious anaemia can cause neurological manifestations from vitamin B12 deficiency and may be associated with premature greying of hair.
Correct answer: Pernicious anaemia- A. Fibrous dysplasia
- B. Pagets disease
- C. Garre's Osteomyelitis
- D. Thalassemia
Explanation: Thalassaemia causes marrow expansion as the body increases erythropoiesis, producing a hair-on-end or crew-cut appearance on skull…
Correct answer: Thalassemia- A. Pigmented teeth
- B. Hypoplastic teeth
- C. Dentinal dysplasia
- D. All of the above
Explanation: Erythroblastosis fetalis may produce green or brown pigmentation of developing teeth, often with enamel hypoplasia and structural defects.
Correct answer: Pigmented teeth- A. Codominant
- B. Autosomal recessive
- C. Autosomal dominan
- D. X-Linked recessive
Explanation: The commonest form of von Willebrand disease, type 1, is usually inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder with variable expression.
Correct answer: Autosomal dominan- A. Chronic ITP commonly occur in adult women
- B. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
- C. Prothrombin Time (PT) & Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are normal
- D. Associated with normal bleeding time
Explanation: ITP causes thrombocytopenia, so bleeding time is prolonged, while PT and PTT are usually normal and marrow megakaryocytes are increased.
Correct answer: Associated with normal bleeding time- A. Transparency of root
- B. Cementum apposition
- C. Attrition
- D. Root resorption
Explanation: Root transparency is regarded as the most reliable Gustafson criterion for adult dental age estimation because it increases relatively…
Correct answer: Transparency of root- A. Factor IX deficiency
- B. Factor VIII deficiency
- C. Factor X deficiency
- D. Vitamin K deficiency
Explanation: Haemophilia A results from factor VIII deficiency, while von Willebrand disease involves defective von Willebrand factor with reduced…
Correct answer: Factor VIII deficiency- A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
- B. Aplatic anemia
- C. Thalassemia
- D. Pernicious anemia
Explanation: Cooley anaemia is the severe form of beta-thalassaemia major, caused by markedly reduced beta-globin production.
Correct answer: Thalassemia- A. Rh (D) immunoglobulin
- B. Blocking antibody
- C. Antilymphocyte globulin
- D. Antithymocyte serum
Explanation: Anti-D Rh immunoglobulin given to an Rh-negative mother prevents sensitisation to Rh-positive fetal red cells and thereby reduces…
Correct answer: Rh (D) immunoglobulin- A. Tourniquet time
- B. Prothrombin time
- C. Clotting time
- D. Bleeding time
Explanation: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and is monitored with prothrombin time, reported clinically as the INR.
Correct answer: Prothrombin time- A. Tetracycline
- B. Cephalosporin
- C. Chloramphenicol
- D. Penicillin
Explanation: Chloramphenicol is classically associated with rare, unpredictable, and potentially fatal aplastic anaemia due to bone-marrow suppression.
Correct answer: Chloramphenicol- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Vitamin C deficiency
- C. Folate deficiency
- D. Protein deficiency
Explanation: Folate deficiency impairs DNA synthesis, producing megaloblastic anaemia with large, immature red-cell precursors.
Correct answer: Folate deficiency- A. RNA paramyxo virus
- B. Varicella zoster virus
- C. Coxsackie virus A 16
- D. Epstein Barr virus
Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is most commonly caused by Epstein-Barr virus, a DNA herpesvirus.
Correct answer: Epstein Barr virus- A. Ulcers which bruise easily
- B. Multiple draining sinuses
- C. Palatal perforation
- D. Alveolar bone loss
Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis may produce oral ulceration and petechial or bruising-like lesions, especially on the palate, because of its…
Correct answer: Ulcers which bruise easily