All Free Oral Pathology and Medicine MCQs with Answers

Every Oral Pathology and Medicine question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

833 questions · page 26 of 42

  • A. Glandular involvement
  • B. Febrile
  • C. Palatine Petechiae
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis commonly causes fever, lymphoid or glandular enlargement, and palatal petechiae due to the systemic Epstein-Barr…

Correct answer: All of the above
  • A. All of the above
  • B. agranulocytosis
  • C. liver cirrhosis
  • D. influenza

Explanation: Leucocytopenia may occur with influenza, agranulocytosis and advanced liver cirrhosis, often through marrow suppression or splenic…

Correct answer: All of the above
  • A. Ecchymosis
  • B. Melanosis
  • C. Petechiae
  • D. Purpura

Explanation: Ecchymosis, petechiae and purpura are caused by blood escaping into tissues, whereas melanosis is melanin pigmentation and is not a…

Correct answer: Melanosis
  • A. Vitamin K
  • B. Monsel's solution
  • C. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate
  • D. Aminocaproic acid

Explanation: Aminocaproic acid inhibits fibrinolysis and helps preserve postoperative clots, making it useful after surgery in haemophilic patients.

Correct answer: Aminocaproic acid
  • A. Factor IX deficiency
  • B. Factor VII deficiency
  • C. Platelet deficiency
  • D. it C deficiency

Explanation: Haemophilia B, or Christmas disease, results from deficiency of clotting factor IX. Haemophilia A is the related factor VIII deficiency.

Correct answer: Factor IX deficiency
  • A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
  • B. Infection mononucleosis
  • C. Primary syphilis
  • D. Recurrent apthous stomatitis

Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is called the kissing disease because Epstein-Barr virus is commonly transmitted through saliva.

Correct answer: Infection mononucleosis
  • A. Folic acid deficiency
  • B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
  • C. Pernicious anaemia
  • D. Paterson-Kelly syndrome

Explanation: Pernicious anaemia can cause neurological manifestations from vitamin B12 deficiency and may be associated with premature greying of hair.

Correct answer: Pernicious anaemia
  • A. Fibrous dysplasia
  • B. Pagets disease
  • C. Garre's Osteomyelitis
  • D. Thalassemia

Explanation: Thalassaemia causes marrow expansion as the body increases erythropoiesis, producing a hair-on-end or crew-cut appearance on skull…

Correct answer: Thalassemia
  • A. Pigmented teeth
  • B. Hypoplastic teeth
  • C. Dentinal dysplasia
  • D. All of the above

Explanation: Erythroblastosis fetalis may produce green or brown pigmentation of developing teeth, often with enamel hypoplasia and structural defects.

Correct answer: Pigmented teeth
  • A. Codominant
  • B. Autosomal recessive
  • C. Autosomal dominan
  • D. X-Linked recessive

Explanation: The commonest form of von Willebrand disease, type 1, is usually inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder with variable expression.

Correct answer: Autosomal dominan
  • A. Chronic ITP commonly occur in adult women
  • B. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
  • C. Prothrombin Time (PT) & Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are normal
  • D. Associated with normal bleeding time

Explanation: ITP causes thrombocytopenia, so bleeding time is prolonged, while PT and PTT are usually normal and marrow megakaryocytes are increased.

Correct answer: Associated with normal bleeding time
  • A. Transparency of root
  • B. Cementum apposition
  • C. Attrition
  • D. Root resorption

Explanation: Root transparency is regarded as the most reliable Gustafson criterion for adult dental age estimation because it increases relatively…

Correct answer: Transparency of root
  • A. Factor IX deficiency
  • B. Factor VIII deficiency
  • C. Factor X deficiency
  • D. Vitamin K deficiency

Explanation: Haemophilia A results from factor VIII deficiency, while von Willebrand disease involves defective von Willebrand factor with reduced…

Correct answer: Factor VIII deficiency
  • A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
  • B. Aplatic anemia
  • C. Thalassemia
  • D. Pernicious anemia

Explanation: Cooley anaemia is the severe form of beta-thalassaemia major, caused by markedly reduced beta-globin production.

Correct answer: Thalassemia
  • A. Rh (D) immunoglobulin
  • B. Blocking antibody
  • C. Antilymphocyte globulin
  • D. Antithymocyte serum

Explanation: Anti-D Rh immunoglobulin given to an Rh-negative mother prevents sensitisation to Rh-positive fetal red cells and thereby reduces…

Correct answer: Rh (D) immunoglobulin
  • A. Tourniquet time
  • B. Prothrombin time
  • C. Clotting time
  • D. Bleeding time

Explanation: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and is monitored with prothrombin time, reported clinically as the INR.

Correct answer: Prothrombin time
  • A. Tetracycline
  • B. Cephalosporin
  • C. Chloramphenicol
  • D. Penicillin

Explanation: Chloramphenicol is classically associated with rare, unpredictable, and potentially fatal aplastic anaemia due to bone-marrow suppression.

Correct answer: Chloramphenicol
  • A. Iron deficiency
  • B. Vitamin C deficiency
  • C. Folate deficiency
  • D. Protein deficiency

Explanation: Folate deficiency impairs DNA synthesis, producing megaloblastic anaemia with large, immature red-cell precursors.

Correct answer: Folate deficiency
  • A. RNA paramyxo virus
  • B. Varicella zoster virus
  • C. Coxsackie virus A 16
  • D. Epstein Barr virus

Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is most commonly caused by Epstein-Barr virus, a DNA herpesvirus.

Correct answer: Epstein Barr virus
  • A. Ulcers which bruise easily
  • B. Multiple draining sinuses
  • C. Palatal perforation
  • D. Alveolar bone loss

Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis may produce oral ulceration and petechial or bruising-like lesions, especially on the palate, because of its…

Correct answer: Ulcers which bruise easily