All Free Microbiology MCQs with Answers

Every Microbiology question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

452 questions · page 21 of 23

  • A. Measles
  • B. Mumps
  • C. Rubella
  • D. Hepatitis B

Explanation: The hepatitis B vaccine is a subunit or cell-fraction vaccine containing purified hepatitis B surface antigen, produced by recombinant…

Correct answer: Hepatitis B
  • A. Flavi virus
  • B. Togaviridae
  • C. Reoviridae
  • D. Rhabdoviridae

Explanation: Dengue virus is a member of the genus Flavivirus in the family Flaviviridae.

Correct answer: Flavi virus
  • A. It can be detected during the window period
  • B. Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
  • C. Virus load parallel P24 titre
  • D. It remains during asymptomatic phase

Explanation: Free p24 antigen is detectable before antibodies appear and usually falls after seroconversion, so it is not continuously present during…

Correct answer: It remains during asymptomatic phase
  • A. Herpes Simplex
  • B. Mumps
  • C. Rubella
  • D. Papilloma

Explanation: Rubella virus crosses the placenta and can cause congenital rubella syndrome, including cataracts, deafness and cardiac defects.

Correct answer: Rubella
  • A. Chicken pox
  • B. Rabies
  • C. Small pox
  • D. Measles

Explanation: Measles produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies, particularly in giant cells.

Correct answer: Measles
  • A. Ribonuclease
  • B. Reverse transcriptase
  • C. DNA polymerase
  • D. Restriction endonuclease

Explanation: Retroviruses carry reverse transcriptase, which copies their RNA genome into DNA after entry into the host cell.

Correct answer: Reverse transcriptase
  • A. Virus
  • B. Bacteria
  • C. Parasite
  • D. Bacteria superadded on virus

Explanation: Dengue haemorrhagic fever is a severe form of dengue virus infection, associated with increased vascular permeability and bleeding.

Correct answer: Virus
  • A. Protein synthesis
  • B. DNA/RNA replication
  • C. When virus enters the cell
  • D. Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule

Explanation: Interferon induces antiviral proteins that chiefly inhibit viral protein synthesis, especially translation, and also affect viral…

Correct answer: Protein synthesis
  • A. Echo virus
  • B. Hepatitis C
  • C. HIV
  • D. Orthomyxovirus

Explanation: HIV, hepatitis C virus and some enteroviruses can be associated with salivary-gland infection or dysfunction.

Correct answer: Orthomyxovirus
  • A. Verruca vulgaris
  • B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
  • C. Condyloma acuminatum
  • D. Keratoacanthoma

Explanation: Verruca vulgaris, focal epithelial hyperplasia and condyloma acuminatum are recognised HPV-associated lesions.

Correct answer: Keratoacanthoma
  • A. Hepatitis B virus
  • B. Hepatitis C virus
  • C. Hepatitis E virus
  • D. Hepatitis A virus

Explanation: Hepatitis E is especially dangerous during pregnancy and can cause severe, fulminant hepatic failure.

Correct answer: Hepatitis E virus
  • A. Sialoperoxidase
  • B. Secretory IgA
  • C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
  • D. Histidine rich proteins

Explanation: Salivary leukocyte protease inhibitor, or SLPI, is an innate salivary protein that inhibits HIV infection and helps explain the very low…

Correct answer: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
  • A. Inactive carrier
  • B. Healthy carrier
  • C. Convalscent carrier
  • D. Paradoxical carrier

Explanation: A convalescent carrier has recovered clinically and may have normal laboratory findings but continues to harbour and transmit the…

Correct answer: Convalscent carrier
  • A. Saubourd's agar
  • B. Rogosa medium
  • C. Nonembryonated egg
  • D. Embryonated egg

Explanation: Viruses require living cells for replication, so they can be grown in living systems such as embryonated eggs.

Correct answer: Embryonated egg
  • A. Above 600
  • B. Between 1000-2000
  • C. Below 200
  • D. Above 2000

Explanation: In patients with HIV infection, Kaposi sarcoma is strongly associated with advanced immunosuppression, commonly when the CD4 count falls…

Correct answer: Below 200
  • A. Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
  • B. Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
  • C. Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is acquired mainly by inhaling aerosolised particles from infected rodent urine, faeces, or saliva.

Correct answer: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
  • A. Rubella
  • B. Rubeola
  • C. Herpes simplex
  • D. Herpetic ginglvostomatitis

Explanation: German measles is the common name for rubella, a disease caused by rubella virus. Rubeola refers to measles, not German measles.

Correct answer: Rubella
  • A. IgM antibodies in serum
  • B. Isolation form stool
  • C. Culture from blood
  • D. Isolation from bile

Explanation: Acute hepatitis A is best confirmed by detecting anti-HAV IgM in serum, which appears early in infection.

Correct answer: IgM antibodies in serum
  • A. Cowpox
  • B. Molluscum contagiosum
  • C. Small pox
  • D. chicken pox

Explanation: Chickenpox is caused by varicella-zoster virus, a herpesvirus, whereas cowpox, molluscum contagiosum, and smallpox are caused by…

Correct answer: chicken pox
  • A. Surface antigen
  • B. Surface antibody
  • C. Core antigen
  • D. Core antibody

Explanation: HBsAg is the main screening marker for current hepatitis B infection, so its detection is used to estimate prevalence.

Correct answer: Surface antigen