Free Business Finance MCQs with Answers
975 Business Finance MCQs from Management Sciences, each with the correct answer and a written explanation of why it is correct. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
Business finance explains how organisations plan, obtain and use money while balancing risk, return and liquidity. Topics include financial statements, time value of money, budgeting, working capital, capital structure, sources of finance, investment appraisal and cost of capital. Capital budgeting evaluates long-term projects, whereas working capital manages day-to-day operations.
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- A. 30%
- B. 40%
- C. 50%
- D. 60%
Explanation: Gross profit is Rs. 800,000, calculated as sales minus cost of goods sold. Dividing Rs. 800,000 by Rs.
Correct answer: 40%- A. Income statement
- B. Cash flow statement
- C. Statement of changes in equity
- D. Statement of financial position
Explanation: The cash flow statement classifies cash movements into operating, investing and financing activities.
Correct answer: Cash flow statement- A. Increases sales revenue
- B. Is a non-cash expense
- C. Creates a financing inflow
- D. Reduces current liabilities
Explanation: Depreciation reduces reported profit but does not involve a current cash payment.
Correct answer: Is a non-cash expense- A. Rejected because IRR exceeds the required return
- B. Accepted because IRR exceeds the required return
- C. Rejected because IRR is a percentage measure
- D. Accepted only if its payback period is shortest
Explanation: Under the IRR decision rule, a project is normally accepted when its IRR is greater than the required rate of return.
Correct answer: Accepted because IRR exceeds the required return- A. Financial leverage
- B. Inventory turnover
- C. Gross profit margin
- D. Receivables collection period
Explanation: Fixed-interest debt creates compulsory finance costs and therefore increases financial leverage.
Correct answer: Financial leverage- A. Factoring
- B. Leasing
- C. Underwriting
- D. Securitisation of equity
Explanation: Factoring involves transferring receivables to a factor, often at a discount, in exchange for earlier cash.
Correct answer: Factoring- A. 10%
- B. 12%
- C. 15%
- D. 20%
Explanation: Return on equity is calculated as profit after tax divided by ordinary shareholders' equity. Rs. 300,000 divided by Rs.
Correct answer: 15%- A. Initial investment divided by present value of inflows
- B. Present value of inflows divided by initial investment
- C. Accounting profit divided by total assets
- D. Cash inflows divided by project life
Explanation: The profitability index compares the present value of future cash inflows with the initial investment.
Correct answer: Present value of inflows divided by initial investment- A. 10%
- B. 11%
- C. 12%
- D. 13.2%
Explanation: CAPM gives required return as risk-free rate plus beta multiplied by the market risk premium. Thus, 6% plus 1.2 multiplied by 5% equals 12%.
Correct answer: 12%- A. More conservative and less liquid
- B. More conservative and more liquid
- C. More aggressive and less liquid
- D. More aggressive and more profitable by definition
Explanation: A conservative working capital policy holds relatively more current assets, improving liquidity and reducing operating risk.
Correct answer: More conservative and more liquid- A. 0.4:1
- B. 0.6:1
- C. 1.7:1
- D. 2.4:1
Explanation: The debt-to-equity ratio is calculated as long-term debt divided by shareholders' equity. Thus, Rs. 900,000 divided by Rs.
Correct answer: 0.6:1- A. 35 days
- B. 55 days
- C. 75 days
- D. 95 days
Explanation: The cash conversion cycle equals inventory days plus receivable days minus payable days. Therefore, 45 plus 30 minus 20 equals 55 days.
Correct answer: 55 days- A. It transfers most ownership risks and rewards
- B. It requires payment only after the asset is sold
- C. It provides funds only for seasonal inventory
- D. It allows cancellation without significant penalty
Explanation: A finance lease substantially transfers the risks and rewards associated with ownership to the lessee, even though legal title may remain…
Correct answer: It transfers most ownership risks and rewards- A. 20%
- B. 25%
- C. 40%
- D. 75%
Explanation: The dividend payout ratio is ordinary dividends divided by profit after tax, multiplied by 100. Rs. 200,000 divided by Rs.
Correct answer: 25%- A. It uses accounting profit rather than cash flow
- B. It always includes the time value of money
- C. It discounts all cash flows at the cost of debt
- D. It measures only the project's payback period
Explanation: The accounting rate of return uses accounting profit and an accounting measure of investment.
Correct answer: It uses accounting profit rather than cash flow- A. Dividend payment schedule
- B. Operating investment decisions
- C. Debt-to-equity ratio
- D. Short-term borrowing policy
Explanation: In the basic Modigliani and Miller model, financing mix does not determine firm value under the stated ideal conditions.
Correct answer: Operating investment decisions- A. To adjust budgeted costs for the actual activity level
- B. To replace the firm's annual financial statements
- C. To estimate only the required cash balance
- D. To record transactions after they occur
Explanation: A flexible budget changes expected revenues and costs according to the actual level of activity.
Correct answer: To adjust budgeted costs for the actual activity level- A. 8%
- B. 10%
- C. 12%
- D. 20%
Explanation: The cost of irredeemable preference shares is calculated as the annual preference dividend divided by the current market price. Rs.
Correct answer: 12%- A. Accounting rate of return
- B. Payback period
- C. Net present value
- D. Average inventory period
Explanation: Net present value measures the amount by which a project is expected to increase wealth in present-value terms.
Correct answer: Net present value- A. Their voting and ownership percentage may be diluted
- B. Their dividend becomes legally guaranteed
- C. Their shares automatically become preference shares
- D. Their original share price is fixed permanently
Explanation: A rights issue offers new shares to existing shareholders, usually in proportion to their current holdings.
Correct answer: Their voting and ownership percentage may be diluted