Free Criminal Law MCQs with Answers

1,518 Criminal Law MCQs from Law and Constitution, each with the correct answer and a written explanation of why it is correct. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

Criminal law identifies offences against the state, persons and property, and explains the requirements of actus reus and mens rea for establishing liability. It also covers stages of crime, abetment, attempt, joint and common intention, general exceptions, criminal responsibility and punishments, distinguishing substantive offences from criminal procedure.

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1,518 questions · page 38 of 76

  • A. 24, Qanun-e-Shahadat
  • B. 26, Qanun-e-Shahdat
  • C. 28, Qanun-e-Shahadat
  • D. None of these

Explanation: The plea of alibi is dealt with under Article 24 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, concerning facts needed to explain or introduce relevant…

Correct answer: 24, Qanun-e-Shahadat
  • A. Article 18
  • B. Article 19
  • C. Article 20
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Article 19 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order embodies the res gestae rule by admitting facts forming part of the same transaction.

Correct answer: Article 19
  • A. Relevant fact
  • B. Irrelevant fact
  • C. None of above
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Statements or acts occurring shortly before, during, or shortly after the beating may form part of the same transaction and are therefore…

Correct answer: Relevant fact
  • A. Two women witnesses with one male witness
  • B. Three female witnesses with one male witness
  • C. Four female witness with a male witness
  • D. None of these

Explanation: For a financial or future-obligation matter, the statutory alternative is one man and two women witnesses.

Correct answer: Two women witnesses with one male witness
  • A. Production of title deed of witness
  • B. Credibility of a witness
  • C. Accomplice
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Article 16 recognizes the competency of an accomplice as a witness, subject to the special restriction applicable in Qisas and Hadd cases.

Correct answer: Accomplice
  • A. Tazir
  • B. Qisas and Hadd
  • C. Felony
  • D. None of these

Explanation: An accomplice is generally competent to testify against an accused, but the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order excludes this competence in Qisas and…

Correct answer: Qisas and Hadd
  • A. Not protected from
  • B. Protected from
  • C. Depends upon wish of advocate
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Advocate-client privilege does not protect a communication made to advance a criminal or fraudulent purpose.

Correct answer: Not protected from
  • A. Special Order of Superior Court
  • B. His own wish
  • C. Order of Advocate General
  • D. None of these

Explanation: A judicial officer such as a Magistrate cannot ordinarily be compelled to explain how a deposition was taken; a special order of a…

Correct answer: Special Order of Superior Court
  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. None of these

Explanation: Zina-bil-jabr may be proved through confession or the testimony of four adult Muslim males of integrity.

Correct answer: 4
  • A. 1st
  • B. 2nd
  • C. 3rd
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: The Third Schedule to the Police Order, 2002 contains the prescribed certificate of appointment.

Correct answer: 3rd
  • A. Form of oath or affirmations by members of Police
  • B. Form of oath or affirmation by officers of senior ranks
  • C. Form of oath or affirmation by junior ranks of police members
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: The Second Schedule prescribes the form of oath or affirmation for members of the police generally.

Correct answer: Form of oath or affirmations by members of Police
  • A. Senior rank
  • B. Junior rank
  • C. Both A. and B.
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Under the First Schedule, the senior ranks begin above Inspector, while Inspector and the ranks below it are classified as junior ranks.

Correct answer: Junior rank
  • A. 158 to 160
  • B. 159 to 162
  • C. 159 to 163
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Articles 159 to 162 establish and regulate the National Police Management Board.

Correct answer: 159 to 162
  • A. Three years with fine
  • B. Four years with fine
  • C. Five years with fine
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Unauthorized entry or search by a police officer is a serious abuse of police power and carries imprisonment extending to five years…

Correct answer: Five years with fine
  • A. 3 months, 5000
  • B. 5 months, 10,000
  • C. 6 months, 15,000
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: A complaint found to be frivolous or vexatious may result in imprisonment up to six months or a fine up to Rs. 15,000.

Correct answer: 6 months, 15,000
  • A. 138
  • B. 140
  • C. Both A. and B.
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Article 140 specifically addresses willful or negligent conduct concerning dogs.

Correct answer: 140
  • A. Ex-Police Officers re-employment
  • B. Additional Police
  • C. Both A. and B.
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Article 126 concerns the employment of additional police, allowing extra police personnel to be employed when required.

Correct answer: Additional Police
  • A. S.S.P. or above
  • B. S.H.O. or above
  • C. Assistant Sub-Inspector or above
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: For serious disorder at a place of amusement, the authority to issue directions is given to a police officer not below the rank of…

Correct answer: Assistant Sub-Inspector or above
  • A. 1 month,
  • B. Two months,
  • C. 3 months
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: A police officer intending to resign must give the superior officer written notice of at least two months.

Correct answer: Two months,
  • A. Withdrawal from duty of Police Official
  • B. Resignation of Police Official
  • C. Both A. and B.
  • D. None of the above

Explanation: Article 116 covers both forms of leaving police service: withdrawal from duty and resignation. Therefore, the combined option is correct.

Correct answer: Both A. and B.