Free Criminal Law MCQs with Answers
1,518 Criminal Law MCQs from Law and Constitution, each with the correct answer and a written explanation of why it is correct. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.
Criminal law identifies offences against the state, persons and property, and explains the requirements of actus reus and mens rea for establishing liability. It also covers stages of crime, abetment, attempt, joint and common intention, general exceptions, criminal responsibility and punishments, distinguishing substantive offences from criminal procedure.
Last updated
1,518 questions · page 34 of 76
- A. Assistant Director
- B. Director
- C. Any Officer nominated by Assistant Director
- D. Both A and C
Explanation: The licence may be signed by the Assistant Director or by an officer whom the Assistant Director has nominated for that purpose.
Correct answer: Both A and C- A. 11 to 13
- B. 11 to 14
- C. 11 to 16
- D. 11 to 18
Explanation: Orders 11 to 14 form the licensing block of the 1934 Executive Orders on Parole.
Correct answer: 11 to 14- A. 3.3
- B. 3.4
- C. 3.5
- D. 3.6
Explanation: The prisoner’s willingness statement is recorded in Form 3.4, while the prisoner roll itself is prepared in Form 3.3.
Correct answer: 3.4664. Order 7 of the Executive Orders on Parole, 1934 provided ________ ways for release of prisoners?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. None of above
Explanation: Order 7 recognises four methods or ways by which prisoners may be released under the parole scheme.
Correct answer: Four- A. Jail
- B. Borstal Farm
- C. Police Station
- D. None of above
Explanation: For adolescents, the relaxation is generally limited to cases where a vacancy is available at a Borstal Farm.
Correct answer: Borstal Farm- A. 3
- B. 4
- C. 5
- D. All of above
Explanation: Order 4 places the application duty on prospective employers and requires Form G, identified as Form 3.1, to be sent through the concerned…
Correct answer: 4- A. Director
- B. Assistant Director
- C. Both (a) and (b)
- D. None of above
Explanation: The Executive Orders require an incapacitated Parole Officer to notify the Assistant Director so that supervision can be arranged or…
Correct answer: Assistant Director- A. Parole Officers
- B. social Workers
- C. Jail Servants
- D. Parolees
Explanation: The weekly abstract records the parolees employed in each district, providing a statistical account of their employment status.
Correct answer: Parolees- A. Payment of fine by parolee
- B. Procedure to be adopted by Parole Officer in fine case
- C. Both A and B
- D. None of above
Explanation: Order 55 covers both the payment of a fine by a parolee and the Parole Officer’s procedure in dealing with a fine case.
Correct answer: Both A and B- A. Until one year after the prisoner's release
- B. Until two years after the final release
- C. Until three years after the final release
- D. None of above
Explanation: After final release, the history ticket is returned to the Jail Superintendent for retention for one year.
Correct answer: Until one year after the prisoner's release- A. Month
- B. Year
- C. day
- D. None of above
Explanation: The final release statement and application for the final release order are sent about one month before the release date falls due.
Correct answer: Month- A. Post Office Savings
- B. Bank
- C. Local Co-operative Banks
- D. Any one of above
Explanation: Order 50 permits the parolee’s account to be opened with a post office savings facility, a bank, or a local co-operative bank.
Correct answer: Any one of above- A. Jail
- B. Nearest Police Station
- C. Both (a) and (b)
- D. None of above
Explanation: Absconding or failing to return after revocation is reported to the Assistant Director, and the criminal complaint is lodged at the…
Correct answer: Nearest Police Station- A. Revocation of license
- B. Escape of Parolee
- C. Both (a) and (b)
- D. None of above
Explanation: Order 49 concerns the escape of a parolee, while the subsequent provisions address the related consequences such as revocation of the…
Correct answer: Escape of Parolee- A. (VII)
- B. (VIII)
- C. (IX)
- D. None of above
Explanation: Order 46, clause IX requires the Parole Officer to maintain the register of leave earned and taken, while the Assistant Director records…
Correct answer: (IX)- A. E.O.P. Act
- B. G.C.P.Act
- C. G.C.P.P.R. Act
- D. None of above
Explanation: Casual leave for a parolee is governed by the Good Conduct Prisoners’ Probational Release Act, commonly abbreviated here as the G.C.P.P.R.
Correct answer: G.C.P.P.R. Act- A. 42 to 44
- B. 43 to 45
- C. 45 to 48
- D. None of above
Explanation: Orders 43 to 45 deal with the procedure applicable when a parolee becomes sick, including medical attention and related arrangements.
Correct answer: 43 to 45- A. Local S.A.S
- B. Jail
- C. Police Station
- D. All of above
Explanation: In an ordinary case, the parolee is sent to the local Senior Assistant Surgeon, or S.A.S., for medical attention; urgent cases may be…
Correct answer: Local S.A.S- A. Forfeiture of remission of whatever he earned
- B. Imprisonment of two years
- C. Imprisonment of three years
- D. None of above
Explanation: Misbehaviour during parole attracts forfeiture of whatever remission the parolee has earned, in addition to any punishment under ordinary…
Correct answer: Forfeiture of remission of whatever he earned- A. One-half
- B. One-third
- C. One-Fourth
- D. One-fifth
Explanation: The combined remission earned before and during parole is ordinarily capped at one-third of the sentence unless the Provincial Government…
Correct answer: One-third