All Free Accounting MCQs with Answers

Every Accounting question in the bank, across all chapters, each with the correct answer and a written explanation. Free and unlimited, with no account needed.

1,971 questions · page 5 of 99

  • A. Occurrence of recorded sales
  • B. Completeness of recorded sales
  • C. Rights over trade receivables
  • D. Valuation of trade receivables

Explanation: Tracing starts with source documents and follows them into the accounting records, so it tests whether transactions have been completely…

Correct answer: Completeness of recorded sales
  • A. Preparing the annual financial statements
  • B. Expressing an independent external audit opinion
  • C. Evaluating risk management and internal controls
  • D. Determining the organisation’s final tax liability

Explanation: Internal audit evaluates and helps improve risk management, governance, and internal controls.

Correct answer: Evaluating risk management and internal controls
  • A. Management’s commitment to integrity and ethical values
  • B. A schedule comparing actual and budgeted expenses
  • C. A procedure for identifying new business risks
  • D. A report listing exceptions in reconciliations

Explanation: The control environment reflects management’s attitude, ethical values, governance, and commitment to competent personnel.

Correct answer: Management’s commitment to integrity and ethical values
  • A. A test of controls
  • B. A substantive procedure
  • C. An engagement acceptance procedure
  • D. A subsequent events procedure

Explanation: The recalculation directly tests whether a recorded financial amount is accurate, making it a substantive procedure.

Correct answer: A substantive procedure
  • A. Accepting management explanations without further work
  • B. Maintaining a questioning mind when evaluating evidence
  • C. Assuming that every management estimate is fraudulent
  • D. Relying only on evidence obtained from outside parties

Explanation: Professional scepticism means maintaining a questioning mind and critically assessing audit evidence.

Correct answer: Maintaining a questioning mind when evaluating evidence
  • A. The audited company’s shareholders
  • B. The company’s chief financial officer
  • C. The independent auditor
  • D. The company’s external legal adviser

Explanation: Audit working papers are normally the property of the auditor because they document the auditor’s procedures, evidence, and conclusions.

Correct answer: The independent auditor
  • A. Adjust the factory balance at the reporting date
  • B. Disclose the event if it is material
  • C. Ignore the event in every circumstance
  • D. Recognise the loss in the earlier period

Explanation: A fire caused by conditions arising after the reporting date is generally a non-adjusting subsequent event.

Correct answer: Disclose the event if it is material
  • A. The date on which the entity prepared its ledger
  • B. The date on which the auditor completed necessary audit procedures
  • C. The date on which shareholders approved the accounts
  • D. The date on which the accounting period began

Explanation: The auditor’s report date normally indicates that the auditor has completed the procedures required up to that date and has obtained…

Correct answer: The date on which the auditor completed necessary audit procedures
  • A. The entity’s management and those charged with governance
  • B. The external auditor alone
  • C. The entity’s tax consultant alone
  • D. The shareholders acting individually

Explanation: Management and those charged with governance are primarily responsible for designing controls and managing the risk of fraud.

Correct answer: The entity’s management and those charged with governance
  • A. The quantity of audit evidence obtained
  • B. The legal ownership of audit evidence
  • C. The source location of audit evidence
  • D. The wording used in audit evidence

Explanation: Sufficiency is the measure of the quantity of audit evidence needed to support an audit conclusion.

Correct answer: The quantity of audit evidence obtained
  • A. The quantity of evidence collected
  • B. The relevance and reliability of evidence
  • C. The cost of obtaining the evidence
  • D. The time spent examining the evidence

Explanation: Appropriateness concerns the quality of audit evidence, especially its relevance and reliability.

Correct answer: The relevance and reliability of evidence
  • A. To prepare the client’s financial statements
  • B. To determine the audit’s scope, timing, and direction
  • C. To replace the client’s internal control system
  • D. To guarantee that all fraud will be detected

Explanation: An audit plan sets the overall scope, timing, and direction of the audit.

Correct answer: To determine the audit’s scope, timing, and direction
  • A. Inspecting board meeting minutes
  • B. Recalculating depreciation using asset records
  • C. Confirming balances with trade creditors
  • D. Observing the physical inventory count

Explanation: Recalculation independently checks the mathematical accuracy of an amount recorded in the accounts.

Correct answer: Recalculating depreciation using asset records
  • A. To list the detailed audit procedures to be performed
  • B. To record the company’s accounting policies
  • C. To summarise the auditor’s final opinion
  • D. To approve the client’s annual budget

Explanation: An audit programme contains the detailed procedures and tests planned for particular audit areas.

Correct answer: To list the detailed audit procedures to be performed
  • A. Ignore it if the accounts balance
  • B. Communicate it to those charged with governance
  • C. Transfer responsibility to the cashier
  • D. Remove the related transaction from the accounts

Explanation: Significant control deficiencies should be communicated to management or those charged with governance, depending on their nature and…

Correct answer: Communicate it to those charged with governance
  • A. Fraud affects only cash transactions
  • B. Error always causes a material misstatement
  • C. Fraud involves an intentional act or omission
  • D. Error is committed only by senior management

Explanation: Fraud involves deliberate deception or concealment, while error results from an unintentional mistake or omission.

Correct answer: Fraud involves an intentional act or omission
  • A. Reducing audit risk through a responsive procedure
  • B. Preparing the financial statements for management
  • C. Testing the auditor’s independence
  • D. Replacing the entity’s control environment

Explanation: The auditor responds to higher assessed risk by designing more effective or extensive substantive procedures.

Correct answer: Reducing audit risk through a responsive procedure
  • A. The auditor’s personal investment plan
  • B. Recommendations concerning control weaknesses
  • C. A guarantee of future business profits
  • D. The approved schedule of employee holidays

Explanation: A management letter commonly communicates control weaknesses and practical recommendations for improvement.

Correct answer: Recommendations concerning control weaknesses
  • A. It always changes an unmodified opinion to an adverse opinion
  • B. It highlights a matter properly presented in the financial statements
  • C. It replaces the auditor’s basis for opinion paragraph
  • D. It is used whenever the auditor lacks independence

Explanation: An emphasis of matter paragraph draws attention to an important matter already properly presented or disclosed in the financial…

Correct answer: It highlights a matter properly presented in the financial statements
  • A. The count is conducted according to stated procedures
  • B. All purchases were paid before year-end
  • C. Every supplier balance is correctly confirmed
  • D. The entity has recorded every sales invoice

Explanation: Attending a physical inventory count allows the auditor to observe the counting process and assess compliance with management’s…

Correct answer: The count is conducted according to stated procedures