Rawls's miximin criterion does not mean that there should be redistribution so as to equalise everyone's incomes in society because ?
Correct answer: C. Such redistribution would remove the incentive to work hard, so society's total income would fall, and so the least well off person would be worse off than they could be under a system in which there was some inequality income.
- A. Such redistribution would mean that those who worked hard were no better off than those who were lazy and this would be unfair.
- B. such redistribution would not maximize the total income of all members of society
- C. Such redistribution would remove the incentive to work hard, so society's total income would fall, and so the least well off person would be worse off than they could be under a system in which there was some inequality income.
- D. such redistribution would amount to confiscation of honestly earned income from higher earners and so would be unjust.
Explanation
Rawls's maximin rule permits inequality when it makes the worst-off person better off than complete equality would. Equalising incomes could reduce work incentives, lower total output, and ultimately harm the least advantaged.
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